Proving When a Tensor is 0: M \cong M \otimes K

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on proving the isomorphism between a module M and its tensor product with a commutative ring K, specifically exploring the conditions under which a tensor is zero and the implications for injectivity of the morphism defined.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant defines a morphism \phi:M \rightarrow M \otimes K by \phi(m)=m \otimes 1 and asserts it is surjective.
  • The same participant questions how to prove injectivity, specifically how to show that \phi(m)=\phi(n) implies m=n.
  • Another participant suggests using the universal property to find an explicit inverse.
  • A later reply describes a bilinear map h: M \times K \rightarrow M and its relation to the tensor product, proposing it as a right and left inverse to \phi.
  • There is acknowledgment that the uniqueness of the morphism derived from the bilinear map is not essential to the argument.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants seem to agree on the approach to proving the isomorphism, but there is an unresolved question regarding the conditions under which a tensor is zero and its implications for injectivity.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations regarding the assumptions made about the module M and the ring K, as well as the specific conditions under which the tensor product behaves as described.

Who May Find This Useful

Readers interested in module theory, tensor products, and the properties of morphisms in algebra may find this discussion relevant.

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Let M be a module over the commutative ring K with unit 1. I want to prove that M \cong M \otimes K. Define \phi:M \rightarrow M \otimes K by \phi(m)=m \otimes 1. This is a morphism because the tensor product is K-linear in the first slot. It is also easy to show that the map is surjective. This is where I get stuck.

Suppose \phi(m)=\phi(n), so that 0 = m \otimes 1 - n \otimes 1 = (m-n) \otimes 1. How do I prove that this implies that m=n and thus the map is injective? More generally, how can you tell when a tensor is 0?
 
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Use the universal property to find an explicit inverse.
 
Thanks, micromass! I think I've got it. If you wouldn't mind, please let me know if this looks alright.

Define h: M \times K \rightarrow M by h(m,k)=mk. This map is bilinear, so it factors through the tensor map M \times K \rightarrow M \otimes K. Thus there is a unique (irrelevant?) morphism f such that f(m \otimes k)=mk. This is the right and left inverse of the morphism \phi, implying that \phi is an isomorphism.
 
That looks alright! The uniqueness of the map is indeed irrelevant here, but it's nice to know.
 

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