Pseudoscalar Matrix Elements and Parity Transformation Behavior

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Hi all. I have a question. What is the behaviour of the polarization vector of a pseudoscalar particle under a parity transformation??
Let me explain my problem. I know for sure that the effective matrix element which links a D^* and a \pi can be written as:

$$
\langle \pi(p)D^*(q,\lambda) | D^*(k,\eta)\rangle=\frac{g}{M_{D^*}}\epsilon_{\alpha\beta\gamma\delta} \lambda^\alpha \eta^\beta p^\gamma q^\delta,
$$
where $g$ is an effective coupling.

What I am trying to prove is that such a matrix element is (as it must be) a scalar. Now if, for example, we put ourselves in the rest frame of the \pi we have just (\vec{\lambda}\times\vec{\eta})\cdot \vec{q}. Is that a scalar function?

Thank you very much
 
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Einj said:
What is the behaviour of the polarization vector of a pseudoscalar particle under a parity transformation??
Pseudoscalar particles don't have polarization vectors, Einj.
 
I am sorry that's clearly a typo. I am talking about the D^*, a pseudovector. Sorry again.
 
Einj said:
I know for sure that the effective matrix element which links a D^* and a \pi can be written as:

$$
\langle \pi(p)D^*(q,\lambda) | D^*(k,\eta)\rangle=\frac{g}{M_{D^*}}\epsilon_{\alpha\beta\gamma\delta} \lambda^\alpha \eta^\beta p^\gamma q^\delta,
$$
where $g$ is an effective coupling.
why it should strictly have this form.
 
It is a consequence of Heavy Quark Effective Theory. You can take a look, for example, at arXiv:hep-ph/9605342 [hep-ph]. In this article there should be such a result.
 
I am sorry but I wasn't able to find such a lagrangian in the reference, where is it?. However, let me just underline that we are talking of a matrix element between a \pi and two D^*, not a D and a D^*. Does your point still hold also for such matrix element??
 
##D^* ## is a vector with parity ##P = -1 ##
##\pi ## is a pseudoscalar ##P = -1##

So you have ##(-1)^3 = -1## for your matrix in and out states.

You have two vectors (three momentum, but not independent) and two pseudo-vectors(polarizations) ##P = +1 ## that you can decompose this matrix element into.

It should be proportional to the two polarizations for sure, and have no free indices.

##\eta_1^{\alpha} \eta_2^{* \beta}##

now you could just multiply this by the metric to get an invariant but this is ## P = +1 ##. You need a negative parity thing somewhere. If you introduce a momentum you'll have a free index if the polarizations are contracted. So you have a ## P = -1 ## thing but its not invariant.

##\eta_1^{\alpha} \eta_2^{* \beta} p_1^{\delta}##

So you use another momenta (assuming some metric multiplications here, any permutation)

##\eta_1^{\alpha} \eta_2^{* \beta} p_1^{\delta} p_2^{\sigma} ##

BUT now its positive parity again. Luckily we have a 4-index negative parity pseudo-tensor, the antisymmetric Levi-Civita tensor giving us an object:

##\epsilon_{\alpha \beta \delta \sigma} \eta_1^{\alpha} \eta_2^{* \beta} p_1^{\delta} p_2^{\sigma} ##

That has both the parity and lorentz-invariant properties of the amplitude. Throw in a constant out front for good measure.

For the Lagrangian look into Heavy Meson Chiral Perturbation Theory. the ##\frac{1}{M}## is from the expansion in the heavy quark mass.

In heavy meson chiral pt the vector and pseudoscalar mesons (D,DSTAR) are grouped into a spin-doublet "H" due to transformation properties.

You'll find the lagrangian as Eq 40 in http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-ph/9605342

which is a great overview of HMxPT
 
Thank you very much. You have been very clear! :biggrin:
 
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