QM: 1D Potential Well Spring - Energy Levels

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on determining the energy levels of a one-dimensional harmonic oscillator with an infinite potential barrier at x=0, where V(x) = mw^2x^2/2 for x ≥ 0 and V(x) = ∞ for x < 0. The energy levels are derived as E_n = ħw(n+1/2) for odd integers n (1, 3, 5, ...), reflecting the boundary conditions imposed by the infinite potential. The wave function must be zero for x < 0, and continuity is required at x=0, although the first derivative does not need to be continuous due to the discontinuity in the potential. The original poster confirmed their understanding and received positive feedback on their approach, ultimately earning full credit for the problem. This highlights the importance of correctly applying boundary conditions in quantum mechanics.
RJLiberator
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Homework Statement


1D Potential V(x) = mw^2x^2/2, part of a harmonic oscillator.
Suppose that the spring can only be stretched, so that the potential becomes V=infinity for x<0. What are the energy levels of this system?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution



I argued my way though this problem by the following:
We know that V(x) = infinity
V(0) = 0
V(x) = 0 otherwise

From our typical energy levels we know E_n = ħw(n+1/2) for n=0,1,2,3,...

But there is a barrier at x =0. Therefore we need x=0 to have E=0.
Energy levels are thus:
E_n = ħw(n+1/2) with n=1,3,5,7,...

One can see this though the wave function graphs: https://i.stack.imgur.com/rb340.gif

Is that argued properly? Did I find the right solution?
 
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What are the boundary conditions at ##x=0## ?
 
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BvU said:
What are the boundary conditions at ##x=0## ?
I thought it was V(0) = 0. Did I interpret this incorrectly? Since the spring can only be stretched and not compressed?
 
I mean the conditions imposed on the solution . You want to make a distinction between the independent variable ##x## and the solution ##\ \psi(x) \ ## that has to satisfy a second order equation (##\ {\mathcal H}\psi = E\psi\ ## in your case) plus two boundary conditions.
 
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I don't want to confuse you, though: your line of thinking is correct; it's just the wording that is unfortunate:
The solution for x < 0 is ##\ \Psi(x) = 0\ ## and at ##\ x=0 \ ## the boundary condition is that the ##\ \Psi \ ## has to be continuous.

The first derivative does not have to be continuous at ##\ x=0 \ ## because the potential function isn't continuous either (I silently hope a theoretician will improve on this somewhat).

At the turning point (Where ##\ V(x) = E\ ##) the situation is different and both ##\ \Psi \ ## and its first derivative have to be continuous.
 
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@BvU sorry for not getting back to you earlier in this thread -- but your help was spot on. It was a much more basic question then I assumed and I got full credit for it, partially thanks to your guidance.
Cheers.
 
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