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If Si1 represents the wavefunction of a Px orbital in the hydrogen atom, and Si2 represents the wavefunction of a Py orbital in the same hydrogen atom. Si1 and Si2 are both normalized wavefunctions.

a) what is the value of integral:Si1*Si2*dt. ?

b) what is the value of integral:Si1*Si1*dt. ?

From what my teacher was saying during lecture, integral:(Si^2)dt = 1, which represents the probability that a particle has to be somewhere there. (I don't quite understand what this equation means). Would someone this to me? I'm pretty sure answer (b) is 1, because of what I've learned, but for (a), the answer is supposed to be 0. Please help. THanks

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# Homework Help: Quantum Mech. Si Wavefunction probability

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