I'm not sure if this is a stupid question, but I'll go ahead anyway. I understand the math aspect of it, but one thing has me confused. If you have a uv plane, and then write x=x(u,v), y=y(u,v), why is it that no matter what the function transforming the uv plane to the xy plane is, we can assume the transformation will have infinitesimal areas in the shape of parallelograms? Couldn't there be times where the transformation has shapes that look nothing like parallelograms?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Homework Help: Question about Jacobian change of variables

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