1. Not finding help here? Sign up for a free 30min tutor trial with Chegg Tutors
    Dismiss Notice
Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Question on spherical integration

  1. Nov 4, 2013 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
    So if you integrate over a spherical area, say a ball of radius 1, then 0≤p≤1, 0≤θ≤2∏, and 0≤∅≤∏. My question is why don't you integrate ∅ between 0 and 2∏? I mean if you are integrating over a sphere then you have to go around it vertically AND horizontally completely? wouldn't both the angles be from 0 to 2∏?

    Thanks genius's :D

    edit: does it have something to do with the fact that you add a p^2sin(phi) when integrating in spherical coordinates?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 4, 2013 #2

    Mark44

    Staff: Mentor

    No, it's much simpler than that.

    A point (r, θ) describes any point in the horizontal plane, and as you know, 0 ≤ θ ≤ ##2\pi##. To describe a point in space, and we can do this by adding a 3rd coordinate, ##\phi##. All we need to identify this point in space is a direction angle, ##\phi##. Keep in mind that ##\phi## is measured from the positive z-axis, so having a range of [0, ##\pi##] gets us all the way from straight up to straight down.

    Note that r is the distance from the origin to the point in polar and cylindrical coordinates. In spherical coordinates, the distance from the origin to the point is ρ, "rho."
     
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook

Have something to add?
Draft saved Draft deleted



Similar Discussions: Question on spherical integration
Loading...