Questions on Mechanics: Why is Tension at End of Whirling Rope Zero?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of tension in a whirling rope, specifically addressing why the tension at the free end of the rope is considered to be zero. The scope includes theoretical mechanics and conceptual clarification of forces in rotational motion.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant references a claim from "An Introduction to Mechanics" that the tension at the end of a whirling rope must be zero because the end is free.
  • Another participant questions whether the discussion pertains to a straight line of rope or a rope in a sine wave configuration.
  • A participant suggests that the lack of additional mass beyond the end of the rope means there is no tension, as tension depends on the mass and acceleration of the rope segment.
  • One participant requests clarification on the explanation provided regarding tension.
  • A humorous remark is made about the situation, implying that the absence of mass beyond the end of the rope leads to zero tension.
  • A more technical explanation is provided, stating that the tension at a distance from the end of the rope is related to the mass of the segment and its acceleration, concluding that as the distance approaches zero, the tension must also approach zero unless infinite acceleration is applied.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing levels of understanding and interpretation of the concept, with some agreeing on the reasoning behind zero tension at the end of the rope while others seek further clarification. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the clarity of the explanation and the implications of the claims made.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations in the assumptions made about the rope's configuration and the conditions under which the tension is analyzed, particularly concerning the acceleration and mass distribution along the rope.

benf.stokes
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Hi,

In one of the examples of "An Introduction to Mechanics" he argues that the tension at the end of a whirling rope must be zero as the end is free.

I just don't understand how this can be.
Below is the example
Kleppner1.jpg

Thanks
 
Last edited:
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is he talking about a length or rope being rotated as a straight line or where the rope is in a sine wave?
 
never mind, I see it now.
the end of the rope has no further mass beyond it or no more rope to provide the tension from the rotational acceleration, at any point r between the ends the tension will be based on the delta from r to the free end and the fixed end.
 
I'm sorry but could you please explain better?
 
Sounds like you've reached the end of your rope...

Well if there's nothing beyond the end then how can there be any tension on it?
 
The tension at a distance [itex]x[/itex] from the end of the rope acts on the segment of the rope between the end and distance x.

If the mass of this segment of the rope is [itex]m_x[/itex] and the tension is [itex]T_x[/itex], then [itex]T_x=m_xa_x[/itex], where [itex]a_x[/itex] is the acceleration of this segment of the rope.

Since [itex]m_x\rightarrow 0[/itex] as [itex]x\rightarrow 0[/itex], then unless the end of the rope is subject to infinite acceleration we must also have [itex]T_x\rightarrow 0[/itex] as [itex]x\rightarrow 0[/itex].
 

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