silvermane
Gold Member
- 113
- 0
I've been recently reading a book on abstract algebra and number theory, and I stumbled upon a problem that at first glance looked obvious, but I can't seem to figure out how to formally write the proof.
1.)So, let's say we have 4 integers, r,s,t,u, all greater than or equal to 1. Suppose \frac{r}{s} = \frac{t}{u} where both fractions are in lowest terms. Prove that r=t and s=u.
2.) Now, suppose we have r and s again (lowest terms), and we look at \frac{r}{s}. Prove that an integer N cannot equal \frac{r}{s} unless s = 1.
Once again, thank you all in advance for your help and advice :)
1.)So, let's say we have 4 integers, r,s,t,u, all greater than or equal to 1. Suppose \frac{r}{s} = \frac{t}{u} where both fractions are in lowest terms. Prove that r=t and s=u.
For this problem, I was thinking of solving it via contradiction but I can't seem to get there. I was thinking of using the fact that the gcd(r,s) = 1, and if the gcd(t,u)=1 that there would be a contradiction if they were not equal, but I feel like that's not enough. Any tips or hints would be greatly appreciated.
2.) Now, suppose we have r and s again (lowest terms), and we look at \frac{r}{s}. Prove that an integer N cannot equal \frac{r}{s} unless s = 1.
I was thinking of saying that we can write r as a product of primes:
and then writing s as a product of primes, but primes that are all different from r's:
Obviously through some algebraic manipulation, we see that \frac{r}{s} is also in lowest terms, and thus can't be an integer unless s=1, but I feel like I need more detail in this part of my proof.
r=p_{1}*p_{2}*...*p_{k}
and then writing s as a product of primes, but primes that are all different from r's:
s=q_{1}*q_{2}*...*q_{k}
Obviously through some algebraic manipulation, we see that \frac{r}{s} is also in lowest terms, and thus can't be an integer unless s=1, but I feel like I need more detail in this part of my proof.
Once again, thank you all in advance for your help and advice :)