henpen
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Reading Cauchy's lecture on the derivative, I see he goes from this limit
\large \lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{1}{ \log_A((A^h)^{\frac{1}{A^h-1}})}
To this one A^h= 1+\beta
\large \lim _{\beta \rightarrow 0} \frac{1}{ \log_A((1+ \beta)^{\frac{1}{\beta}})}=\frac{1}{\log_A(e)}
I understand the intuition behind the technique, and the result. However, is this variable-change rigorous? How can we be sure that \beta =A^h-1 tends to 0 in the same way as h does, or do we just need to know that when h=0 \Rightarrow \beta=0, so the limit will be the same?
\large \lim _{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{1}{ \log_A((A^h)^{\frac{1}{A^h-1}})}
To this one A^h= 1+\beta
\large \lim _{\beta \rightarrow 0} \frac{1}{ \log_A((1+ \beta)^{\frac{1}{\beta}})}=\frac{1}{\log_A(e)}
I understand the intuition behind the technique, and the result. However, is this variable-change rigorous? How can we be sure that \beta =A^h-1 tends to 0 in the same way as h does, or do we just need to know that when h=0 \Rightarrow \beta=0, so the limit will be the same?