- #1
TylerH
- 729
- 0
First, can all aleph 1 sets be generalized as sets of infinitely wide tuples? As in, let [itex]a_1a_2_a3 \ldots \in \Re[/itex] map to [itex](a_1, a_2, a_3, \ldots)[/itex].
Second, if countably infinite sets are n-tuples, aleph 1 sets are infinite tuples, can this pattern be generalized to even higher cardinality?
Second, if countably infinite sets are n-tuples, aleph 1 sets are infinite tuples, can this pattern be generalized to even higher cardinality?