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Rearranging equations

  1. Mar 28, 2006 #1
    Show that m(2r'a' +ra'')=0 can be rewritten as md/dt(r^2*a')=0

    Has anyone got any tips on how i should go about this?? Thanks x
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 28, 2006 #2

    Doc Al

    User Avatar

    Staff: Mentor

    Use the product rule to take the derivative.
  4. Mar 28, 2006 #3
    it's trivial. you can jump to the solution directly.
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