mathman said:
To Stevel 27
I looked at the references in your last note and, as far as I can see, Wiles's use of inaccessible cardinals is controversial. I will admit it is completely far from my area of expertize (probability theory) so I can't make any judgment. However I would be very surprised that a theorem in algebra needs any such idea (inaccessible cardinals).
I confess I'm at a loss to respond.
Earlier you wrote:
mathman said:
I believe there is a "standard" set of axioms which is used by all mathematicians, working outside of symbolic logic.
I pointed out that there is a striking and reasonably well-known counterexample to that statement; namely, the modern framework of algebraic geometry developed by Grothiendick, which takes place in the axiom system ZFC + "there exists an inaccessible cardinal," a system that is stronger than ZFC.
Nobody disputes this well-documented fact. The situation is very well laid out here ...
http://www.cwru.edu/artsci/phil/Proving_FLT.pdf
Since algebraic geometry is what we'd all consider "real math" and not symbolic logic or foundations, I would think that you would concede the point. However, all you are willing to do is say that you would be "very surprised."
Does that mean that
a) You are indeed very surprised, but now that you have considered the matter, you do realize that modern mathematicians are far from agreed on a standard set of axioms, but rather choose whatever set of axioms they need to do their work and prove their theorems, providing they can get a consensus from the mathematical community that their work is valid. [This would be my personal belief. Also note the many efforts to find alternate foundational systems, such as new axioms of set theory such as assuming the existence of inaccessibles; or category theory; or Vovoedsky's belief that PA may well be inconsistent, and his current research into developing new foundations based on homotopy theory.]
or
b) You disagree that Grothiendick uses inaccessible cardinals. This would be a completely untenable position. Grothiendick universes are logically equivalent to inaccessibles, as outlined in the Wikipedia article I linked earlier:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grothendieck_universe
or
c) You have some other specific disagreement with the references I've provided, but you have not yet specified them.
I do understand that as a practicing mathematician, you may well have spent your time proving theorems, attending faculty meetings, and grading freshman calculus papers, and did not spend much time thinking about foundational or historical or philosophical issues.
But what do you think NOW, based on what I've written? If truth = provability, then truth is a function of history and choice of axiom systems. We know today that Euclid's Elements is not logically rigorous; and that Gauss's 1799 proof of the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra is logically flawed. Our notions of proof change throughout history. Whereas we would like to think of truth as something that is eternal: FTA has always been true, even long before anyone proved it. Or did it become true when Gauss proved it, then false as the logical flaws in Gauss's proof were understood, and then true again now that the average grad student can probably scratch out a proof of FTA given a hint or two?
See
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorem_of_algebra
for an overview of the history of attempts to prove this famous theorem.
In any event, you said you spent your career in probability theory. Then you must be intimately familiar with the notion of nonmeasurable sets; and their logical relationship to the Axiom of Choice. I would think that of all the mathematical disciplines, probability theorists would be the most inclined to realize that provability is a function of the axioms you choose, and not at all necessarily related to any absolute notion of truth. Surely you are aware that AC was controversial for a long time; and the reason that mainstream mathematicians freely accept it today is because it is
useful, not because we have any way at present to know if it is
true, or if even calling AC true or false is meaningful.
I do apologize if all this seems like a thread hijack. But the OP asked about truth in mathematics. And a professional mathematician has claimed that truth = provability, a notion that was forever destroyed by Godel in 1931 -- as Mathman himself noted earlier in this thread! So I just don't understand where Mathman is coming from.
Mathman, YOU are the one who wrote:
mathman said:
Godel - undecidable proof.
And now you are saying that truth = provability, when Godel showed the exact opposite!