shebbbbo
- 16
- 0
The question asks to show using the residue theorem that
\int cos(x)/(x2+1)2 dx = \pi/e
(the terminals of the integral are -\infty to \infty but i didnt know the code to write that)
I found the singularities at -i and +i
so i think we can then say
\intcos (z) / (z+i)2(z-i)2 dz
and if we take that integral over a closed contour then we will be left with the residue
and i know that once we have found the residue you can multiply this by 2\pii and sum all the residues together.
BUT...
i don't know how to find the residues for this question. the cos on the top line is causing me trouble. maybe i need to expand the cos as a series? but I am not sure
thanks
\int cos(x)/(x2+1)2 dx = \pi/e
(the terminals of the integral are -\infty to \infty but i didnt know the code to write that)
I found the singularities at -i and +i
so i think we can then say
\intcos (z) / (z+i)2(z-i)2 dz
and if we take that integral over a closed contour then we will be left with the residue
and i know that once we have found the residue you can multiply this by 2\pii and sum all the residues together.
BUT...
i don't know how to find the residues for this question. the cos on the top line is causing me trouble. maybe i need to expand the cos as a series? but I am not sure
thanks