Riemann integral of arcsinh (have the answer, want an explanation)

[foges]

Homework Statement

Given the following sum, turn it into an integral:
\lim_{n \to \infty}\Sigma^n_{k=1}\dfrac{1}{n\sqrt{1+(k/n)^2}}

Homework Equations

The answer says =\int^2_1\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}

The Attempt at a Solution

I understand how to get the equation, but why integrate from 1 to 2 and not from 0 to 1. if 1/n is the base length then the height should go from =\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1+0}} to =\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1+1}} not from =\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1+1}} to =\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{1+4}}... or so i though??

Thanks

 

[HallsofIvy]

No reason I can think of! Clearly to identify 1/\sqrt{1+ (k/n)^2} with 1/\sqrt{1+ x^2} you have to take x= k/n. But with x= k/n, when k= 1 you have x= 1/n, which goes to 0 as n goes to infinity, and when k= n you have x= 1. The integral is from 0 to 1. Your book must have a typo.

 

[foges]

Ok cool thanks :)