Sakurai Degenerate Perturbation Theory: projection operators

maverick280857
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Hi,

So, I am working through section 5.2 of Sakurai's book which is "Time Independent Perturbation Theory: The Degenerate Case", and I see a few equations I'm having some trouble reconciling with probably because of notation. These are equations 5.2.3, 5.2.4, 5.2.5 and 5.2.7.

First, we define a projection operator [itex]P_0[/itex] onto the space defined by [itex]\{|m^{(0)}\rangle\}[/itex]. We define [itex]P_1 = 1-P_0[/itex] to be the projection onto the remaining states. There are g different eigenkets with the same unperturbed energy [itex]E_{D}^{(0)}[/itex]. So, we have

[tex](E-E_{D}^{(0)} - \lambda P_0 V)P_0|l\rangle - \lambda P_0 V P_1|l\rangle = 0[/tex]
[tex]-\lambda P_1 V P_0 |l\rangle + (E - H_0 - \lambda P_1 V)P_1 |l\rangle = 0[/tex]

So the second equation supposedly gives equation 5.2.5

[tex]P_1 |l\rangle = P_1 \frac{\lambda}{E-H_0-\lambda P_1 V P_1}P_1 V P_0|l\rangle[/tex]

Question 1: How does one get the extra [itex]P_1[/itex] on the RHS sticking to the left?

Now if we substitute this into the second of the two equations above, we supposedly get

[tex]\left(E-E_{D}^{(0)} - \lambda P_0 V P_0 - \lambda^2 P_0 V P_1 \frac{1}{E-H_0-\lambda V}P_1 V P_0\right)P_0|l\rangle = 0[/tex]

Question 2: In the third term, in the denominator, how does one get [itex]\lambda V[/itex] instead of [itex]\lambda P_1 V P_1[itex]?[/itex][/itex][itex][itex] <br /> Finally, using this last expression, Sakurai obtains for [itex]|l^{(0)}\rangle[/itex] the condition<br /> <br /> [tex](E-E_{D}^{(0)}-\lambda P_0 V P_0)(P_0 |l^{(0)}\rangle) = 0[/tex]<br /> <br /> <b>Question 3: How does one arrive at this condition?</b> The operator in the brackets is written to order [itex]\lambda[/itex], but the third term also has an order [itex]\lambda[/itex] term. Isn't the idea here to expand both the big bracket and the ket as two power series in [itex]\lambda[/itex] and then equate the "coefficients" of each term order by order to the right hand side, which is identically zero?<br /> <br /> Any help or hints will be much appreciated![/itex][/itex]
 
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maverick280857 said:
Question 1: How does one get the extra [itex]P_1[/itex] on the RHS sticking to the left?
I only have time to look at this one right now. You multiply both sides of the second equation by this:
\begin{align}
(E-H_0-\lambda P_1 V)^{-1} &=P_1P_1^{~-1}(E-H_0-\lambda P_1 V)^{-1} =P_1\big((E-H_0-\lambda P_1 V)P_1\big)^{-1}\\
&=P_1\big((E-H_0)P_1-\lambda P_1VP_1\big)^{-1}
\end{align} I guess we must have ##(E-H_0)P_1=E-H_0## somehow. Hm...I think that this is not true, but we can pretend that it is as long as the operator above only acts on states of the form ##P_1|\text{something}\rangle##. To put it differently, the restriction of ##E-H_0## to the subspace ##P_1(\mathcal H)## (where ##\mathcal H## is the Hilbert space) is equal to the restriction of ##(E-H_0)P_1## to that subspace.

Edit: D'oh, this doesn't make sense. Projection operators aren't invertible. Unfortunately I have to leave the computer for a couple of hours now.
 
Last edited:
maverick280857 said:
Question 1: How does one get the extra [itex]P_1[/itex] on the RHS sticking to the left?

I believe Sakurai gives the answer to this. E - H0 - λP1VP1 is singular and can't be inverted. But it is nonsingular in the P1 subspace. So we invert its projection, P1(E - H0 - λP1VP1)P1, gettting P1(E - H0 - λP1VP1)-1 P1.
 
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maverick280857 said:
Question 3: How does one arrive at this condition? The operator in the brackets is written to order [itex]\lambda[/itex], but the third term also has an order [itex]\lambda[/itex] term.
No, the third term already has a λ2 in front, and if you expand (E - H0 - λV)-1 in a power series for small λ, it will contribute only more positive powers of λ.
 
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