hi all please help me... I'm learning schrodinger equation of a particle in a 1-dimensional box. I read a quantum mechanics book written by A. C Phillips. the wavefuction is(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

ψ (x,t)= N sin (kx) e^{-iEt/hbar}

but when I compared to what I read from a modern physics book written by Beisser. the wavefunction is:

d^{2}ψ/dx^{2}+ 2m/hbar E ψ

=0

and the solution is:

ψ=A sin ((√2mE)/hbar)x + B cos ((√2mE)/hbar)

and we only use:

ψ =N sin (kx) only,

it is different. and I got trouble when I tried to find momentum probability. because it is different. which one is true?

my question is:

1.where "e^{-iEt/hbar}" comes from?

2. how to get the solution "

ψ=A sin ((√2mE)/hbar)x + B cos ((√2mE)/hbar)" from

d^{2}ψ/dx^{2}+ 2m/hbar E ψ

= 0

thank you very much for help.. :)

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# Schrodinger equation of particle in box

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