Show that the next eigenfunction has a zero between 2 zeros

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    Eigenfunction Zero
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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on demonstrating that the next eigenfunction, denoted as ##\psi_{n+1}##, has a zero between two consecutive zeros of the eigenfunction ##\psi_n##. Utilizing the Wronskian theorem, the relationship between the derivatives of these functions at their zeros is established. The First Mean Value Theorem for Integrals is applied to conclude that if ##\psi_n(a)=\psi_n(b)=0##, then there exists a point ##c \in (a, b)## where ##\psi_{n+1}(c)=0##. The analysis confirms that the signs of the derivatives at the endpoints are crucial for establishing the existence of the zero.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Wronskian theorem in differential equations
  • Familiarity with the First Mean Value Theorem for Integrals
  • Knowledge of eigenfunctions and their properties in quantum mechanics
  • Basic calculus, particularly differentiation and sign analysis
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Wronskian theorem in detail to understand its implications for eigenfunctions
  • Explore the First Mean Value Theorem for Integrals and its applications in mathematical proofs
  • Investigate the properties of eigenfunctions in quantum mechanics, focusing on their zeros
  • Practice problems involving the analysis of function signs and their derivatives
USEFUL FOR

Students and researchers in mathematics and physics, particularly those studying differential equations and quantum mechanics, will benefit from this discussion. It is especially relevant for those tackling eigenfunction properties and their implications in various applications.

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Homework Statement


Screen Shot 2015-12-10 at 11.40.54 pm.png

Screen Shot 2015-12-10 at 11.41.06 pm.png


Homework Equations


Wronskian theorem:
Screen Shot 2015-12-11 at 12.00.50 am.png


The Attempt at a Solution


I've gotten the relationship given by the question but I do not know how to continue.

Since ##\psi_n(a)=\psi_n(b)=0##,
LHS ##=\psi_n'(b)\,\psi_{n+1}(b)-\psi_n'(a)\,\psi_{n+1}(a)##

If LHS ##=0##, RHS ##=0##, then by the First Mean Value Theorem for Integrals, ##\psi_{n+1}(c)=0## for some ##c\in(a,b)##.

But LHS is not necessarily ##0##.

Attached below is the derivation of Wronskian theorem.
 

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Last edited:
As a and b are consecutive zeros of ##\psi_n##, ##\psi_n## won't change sign between a and b.
Assume, without loss of generality, that ##\psi_n## is positive between a and b.
What does that tell you about the signs of ##\psi_n'(a)## and ##\psi_n'(b)##?

Now assume that ##\psi_{n+1}## has no zeros between a and b. It follows that ##\psi_{n+1}## won't change sign between a and b.
Now just check what the signs of the two expressions will be (remember that ##E_{n+1}>E_n##).
 
Last edited:

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