- #1
Von Neumann
- 101
- 4
Problem:
Show that
[itex]\Theta_{20}=\frac{\sqrt{10}}{4}(3cos^{2}\theta-1)[/itex]
is a normalized solution to
[itex]\frac{1}{sin\theta}\frac{d}{d\theta}(sin\theta \frac{d\Theta}{d\theta})+[l(l+1)-\frac{m_{l}^{2}}{sin^{2}\theta}]\Theta=0[/itex]
Solution:
I know how to show it's a solution, but I'm stuck on showing it's normalized.
I know that in general, a normalized wavefunction obeys,
[itex]\int^∞_{-∞}\mid \psi \mid^{2}dV=1[/itex]
So would this particular normalized angular wavefunction obey the following?
[itex]\int^{\pi}_0\mid \Theta_{20}(\theta) \mid^{2}\sin\theta d\theta=1[/itex]
I'm sorry if this is very elementary, but we just started doing this type of thing in my modern physics class. We haven't used any complex methods to solve these, so I don't think this problem will involve any advanced operators or anything of that sort. Any suggestions?
I just need help setting the integral up.
Show that
[itex]\Theta_{20}=\frac{\sqrt{10}}{4}(3cos^{2}\theta-1)[/itex]
is a normalized solution to
[itex]\frac{1}{sin\theta}\frac{d}{d\theta}(sin\theta \frac{d\Theta}{d\theta})+[l(l+1)-\frac{m_{l}^{2}}{sin^{2}\theta}]\Theta=0[/itex]
Solution:
I know how to show it's a solution, but I'm stuck on showing it's normalized.
I know that in general, a normalized wavefunction obeys,
[itex]\int^∞_{-∞}\mid \psi \mid^{2}dV=1[/itex]
So would this particular normalized angular wavefunction obey the following?
[itex]\int^{\pi}_0\mid \Theta_{20}(\theta) \mid^{2}\sin\theta d\theta=1[/itex]
I'm sorry if this is very elementary, but we just started doing this type of thing in my modern physics class. We haven't used any complex methods to solve these, so I don't think this problem will involve any advanced operators or anything of that sort. Any suggestions?
I just need help setting the integral up.
Last edited: