Show that this function is differentiable

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The discussion centers on proving the differentiability of the function f at point c, given that |f(x)| is bounded by (x - c)². The key to the proof is establishing that f(c) equals 0, which follows from the inequality provided. To show that f is differentiable, the limit of the difference quotient must be evaluated, specifically lim_{x to c} (f(x)/(x - c)). By applying the given bound, it is demonstrated that this limit approaches 0, confirming that f is differentiable at c and that f'(c) = 0. The proof effectively utilizes the properties of limits and inequalities to reach the conclusion.
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Homework Statement


Exercise 4.2.4.
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Let ##I \subseteq \mathbb{R}## be an open interval, let ##c \in I##, and let ##f:I \rightarrow \mathbb{R}##. Suppose that ##|f(x)| \leq (x - c)^2## for all ##x \in I##. Prove that ##f## is differentiable at ##c## and ##f'(c) = 0##.


2. The attempt at a solution
I'm not really sure where to start. We just want to show that ##\lim_{x \to c} \frac{f(x) - f(c)}{x - c} = 0##. I see that ##\lim_{x \to c} (x - c)^2 = 0##. I feel that this may be a simple trick of inequalities, but I am having a complete brain fart at the moment. Can anyone provide any direction? Thanks in advance for any response.
 
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What is ##f(c)## equal to? Can you then find an upper bound for ##\frac{|f(x) - f(c)|}{|x - c|}##?
 
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Krylov said:
What is ##f(c)## equal to? Can you then find an upper bound for ##\frac{|f(x) - f(x)|}{|x - c|}##?
Aha, yes! I didn't even consider finding what ##f(c)## equals. Having ##|f(x)| \leq (x - c)^2## for all ##x \in I## forces ##f(c) = 0##. Now, to find ##f'(c)## we must now find $$\lim_{x \to c} \frac{f(x)}{x - c}$$, which we can show to be ##0##, if we can alternatively show that $$\lim_{x \to c}|\frac{f(x)}{x-c}| = \lim_{x \to c}\frac{|f(x)|}{|x-c|} = 0$$. Now, ##|f(x)| \leq (x - c)^2## for all ##x \in I##, also implies that for ##x \in I-\{c\}##, ##\frac{|f(x)|}{|x-c|} \leq |x - c|##. Since the latter's limit is 0, and both are point-wise positive, we have that $$\lim_{x \to c}|\frac{f(x)}{x-c}| = 0$$, and we are done.
 
First, I tried to show that ##f_n## converges uniformly on ##[0,2\pi]##, which is true since ##f_n \rightarrow 0## for ##n \rightarrow \infty## and ##\sigma_n=\mathrm{sup}\left| \frac{\sin\left(\frac{n^2}{n+\frac 15}x\right)}{n^{x^2-3x+3}} \right| \leq \frac{1}{|n^{x^2-3x+3}|} \leq \frac{1}{n^{\frac 34}}\rightarrow 0##. I can't use neither Leibnitz's test nor Abel's test. For Dirichlet's test I would need to show, that ##\sin\left(\frac{n^2}{n+\frac 15}x \right)## has partialy bounded sums...