Show this simple trigonometric identity add up to 0

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around proving the trigonometric identity involving the expression cos((-πx)/L) - cos((3πx)/L). The user attempts to simplify the second cosine term but questions whether it can be expressed as cos(πx/L). They provide a specific example with x = 1 and L = 3, calculating the values and noting that the expression does not equal zero. The conclusion drawn is that the identity does not hold true for all x. The discussion highlights the complexity of trigonometric identities and the need for careful evaluation.
td21
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Homework Statement


\cos (\frac{(-1)\pi x}{L})-\cos (\frac{3\pi x}{L})


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


the first cosine is the same as positive but is the second cosine simply equal to
\cos (\frac{\pi x}{L})?


thanks!
 
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When x = 1, L = 3, we have:

cos(-pi/3) - cos(pi)
= 1 + cos(-pi/3) > 0
 
\cos(-x)=\cos(x)
and
\cos(3x)=4\cos^3(x)-3\cos(x)

So obviously this isn't going to be equal to 0 for all x.
 
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