Showing a sequence of functions is Cauchy/not Cauchy in L1

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining whether specific sequences of real-valued functions are Cauchy in the L¹ space over the interval [0,1]. The functions are defined piecewise, with different behaviors based on the parameter n. Participants are exploring the implications of these definitions on the Cauchy criterion.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to compute the L¹ norms of the functions by integrating their absolute values over the specified interval. There is uncertainty about how to express the difference between the functions f_n and f_m explicitly, particularly in terms of their piecewise definitions.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on how to approach the integration and the conditions under which the functions are equal or different. There is an ongoing exploration of the regions in which the functions overlap and where they differ, as well as the implications for calculating the norms.

Contextual Notes

Participants are discussing the piecewise nature of the functions and the implications of the intervals defined by n. There is a mention of potential undefined integrals, which some participants are questioning based on the piecewise definitions provided.

Euler2718
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Homework Statement



Determine whether or not the following sequences of real valued functions are Cauchy in L^{1}[0,1]:

(a) f_{n}(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} & , \frac{1}{n+1}\leq x \leq 1 \\ 0 & , \text{ otherwise } \end{cases}

(b) <br /> f_{n}(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{x} &amp; , \frac{1}{n+1}\leq x &lt; 1 \\ 0 &amp; , \text{ otherwise } \end{cases}<br />

Homework Equations



\{ f_{n} \}_{n=1}^{\infty} is Cauchy in L^{1}[0,1] iff for all \epsilon&gt;0 there exists N\in\mathbb{N} such that for n,m\geq N, ||f_{n}-f_{m}||_{1} &lt; \epsilon.

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
In both problems I think I should get to a step where I integrate \left|\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\right| and \left|\frac{1}{x}\right| over [0,1] and get the norm values of 2 and undefined respectively, then I can conclude easily. Embarrassingly I don't know what f_{n}-f_{m} is explicitly (in terms of its piecewise definition). I had first thought it to be zero for both cases, I don't think this is the case. Feel stupid asking this, but how do you subtract f_{n} and f_{m} in either case ?
 
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Euler2718 said:

Homework Statement



Determine whether or not the following sequences of real valued functions are Cauchy in L^{1}[0,1]:

(a) f_{n}(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} &amp; , \frac{1}{n+1}\leq x \leq 1 \\ 0 &amp; , \text{ otherwise } \end{cases}

(b) <br /> f_{n}(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{x} &amp; , \frac{1}{n+1}\leq x &lt; 1 \\ 0 &amp; , \text{ otherwise } \end{cases}<br />

Homework Equations



\{ f_{n} \}_{n=1}^{\infty} is Cauchy in L^{1}[0,1] iff for all \epsilon&gt;0 there exists N\in\mathbb{N} such that for n,m\geq N, ||f_{n}-f_{m}||_{1} &lt; \epsilon.

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
In both problems I think I should get to a step where I integrate \left|\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\right| and \left|\frac{1}{x}\right| over [0,1] and get the norm values of 2 and undefined respectively, then I can conclude easily. Embarrassingly I don't know what f_{n}-f_{m} is explicitly (in terms of its piecewise definition). I had first thought it to be zero for both cases, I don't think this is the case. Feel stupid asking this, but how do you subtract f_{n} and f_{m} in either case ?

If ##m > n##, in what ##x##-region are ##f_m(x)## and ##f_n(x)## the same? In what ##x##-region are they different? So, what is the formula for ##f_m(x) - f_n(x)## over ##0 \leq x \leq 1?##
 
Your functions are defined piecewise, and vanish on [0, \frac{1}{n+1}). You shouldn't be getting any undefined integrals:
<br /> \int_0^1 f_n(x)\,dx = \int_0^{1/(n+1)} 0\,dx + \int_{1/(n+1)}^1 \frac1x\,dx = \left[\log(x)\right]_{1/(n+1)}^1 = -\log(1/(n+1)),<br /> etc.

You can without loss of generality assume N \leq n &lt; m.
 
Ray Vickson said:
If ##m > n##, in what ##x##-region are ##f_m(x)## and ##f_n(x)## the same? In what ##x##-region are they different? So, what is the formula for ##f_m(x) - f_n(x)## over ##0 \leq x \leq 1?##

Using (a) as an example, if m&gt;n, then f_{m} and f_{n} would be the same (both \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} ) on \frac{1}{n+1} \leq x \leq 1 and different (f_{m}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} but f_{n}=0) on \frac{1}{m+1}\leq x &lt; \frac{1}{n+1}. So \displaystyle f_{m}-f_{n} = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} &amp;, \frac{1}{m+1}\leq x &lt; \frac{1}{n+1} \\ 0 &amp;, \text{ otherwise } \end{cases} ?

pasmith said:
Your functions are defined piecewise, and vanish on [0, \frac{1}{n+1}). You shouldn't be getting any undefined integrals:
<br /> \int_0^1 f_n(x)\,dx = \int_0^{1/(n+1)} 0\,dx + \int_{1/(n+1)}^1 \frac1x\,dx = \left[\log(x)\right]_{1/(n+1)}^1 = -\log(1/(n+1)),<br /> etc.

You can without loss of generality assume N \leq n &lt; m.

I see what you mean. I was not careful enough with the permissible x values to notice this.
 

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