jeebs
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- 5
hi,
not strictly homework as my course doesn't get going again for a couple of weeks yet, but suppose I have a system with quantum number l=1 in the angular momentum state
u = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left(\begin{array}{cc}1\\1\\0\end{array}\right)
and I measure Lz, the angular momentum component along the z-axis. The problem I am attempting is to find out the possible results and their probabilities, also the expectation value.
So, I got the operator matrix L_z = \hbar \left(\begin{array}{ccc}1&0&0\\0&0&0\\0&0&-1\end{array}\right)
and after using that in the eigenvalue equation, L_zu = \lambda u I multiplied the matrices together to find that L_zu = \frac{\hbar}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\begin{array}{cc}1\\0\\0\end{array}\right) = \frac{\lambda}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\begin{array}{cc}1\\1\\0\end{array}\right).
from this I see that the possible eigenvalues (ie. the possible results of measurement, right?) are \lambda = \hbar and \lambda = 0. If I'm not mistaken, this is a sensible result given that the angular momentum quantum number l=1.
however, I'm not sure how to approach getting the probability of each outcome. I have this expression in my notes, P_a = |<a|u>|^2 =\left| \sum a_i^*u_i \right|^2. What I thought about this was maybe that the state |u> was supposed to be taken as a superposition of two basis states, one for each eigenvalue, 0 and \hbar. So, if I named these basis states as a1 and a2, when I again used the eigenvalue equation I found: L_za_1 = \hbar \left(\begin{array}{ccc}1&0&0\\0&0&0\\0&0&-1\end{array}\right) \left(\begin{array}{c}a11\\a12\\a13\end{array}\right) = \hbar\left(\begin{array}{c}a11\\a12\\a13\end{array}\right) which leads to a_1 = \left(\begin{array}{c}1\\0\\0\end{array}\right)
When I do the same thing again I find that a_2 = \left(\begin{array}{c}0\\0\\0\end{array}\right).
This doesn't seem sensible to me, because how can that be combined with the eigenstate a1 in a summation that produces the state u? it cannot, as every element is zero and u has two non-zero elements, so I have given up at this point. I was looking at the coefficient ai in the probability expression above, but I wasn't sure how to actually work out what they were spposed to be.
Does anyone have any ideas what I am supposed to do here? Am I even remotely trying to do the right thing?
Thanks.
not strictly homework as my course doesn't get going again for a couple of weeks yet, but suppose I have a system with quantum number l=1 in the angular momentum state
u = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left(\begin{array}{cc}1\\1\\0\end{array}\right)
and I measure Lz, the angular momentum component along the z-axis. The problem I am attempting is to find out the possible results and their probabilities, also the expectation value.
So, I got the operator matrix L_z = \hbar \left(\begin{array}{ccc}1&0&0\\0&0&0\\0&0&-1\end{array}\right)
and after using that in the eigenvalue equation, L_zu = \lambda u I multiplied the matrices together to find that L_zu = \frac{\hbar}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\begin{array}{cc}1\\0\\0\end{array}\right) = \frac{\lambda}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\begin{array}{cc}1\\1\\0\end{array}\right).
from this I see that the possible eigenvalues (ie. the possible results of measurement, right?) are \lambda = \hbar and \lambda = 0. If I'm not mistaken, this is a sensible result given that the angular momentum quantum number l=1.
however, I'm not sure how to approach getting the probability of each outcome. I have this expression in my notes, P_a = |<a|u>|^2 =\left| \sum a_i^*u_i \right|^2. What I thought about this was maybe that the state |u> was supposed to be taken as a superposition of two basis states, one for each eigenvalue, 0 and \hbar. So, if I named these basis states as a1 and a2, when I again used the eigenvalue equation I found: L_za_1 = \hbar \left(\begin{array}{ccc}1&0&0\\0&0&0\\0&0&-1\end{array}\right) \left(\begin{array}{c}a11\\a12\\a13\end{array}\right) = \hbar\left(\begin{array}{c}a11\\a12\\a13\end{array}\right) which leads to a_1 = \left(\begin{array}{c}1\\0\\0\end{array}\right)
When I do the same thing again I find that a_2 = \left(\begin{array}{c}0\\0\\0\end{array}\right).
This doesn't seem sensible to me, because how can that be combined with the eigenstate a1 in a summation that produces the state u? it cannot, as every element is zero and u has two non-zero elements, so I have given up at this point. I was looking at the coefficient ai in the probability expression above, but I wasn't sure how to actually work out what they were spposed to be.
Does anyone have any ideas what I am supposed to do here? Am I even remotely trying to do the right thing?
Thanks.
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