Simplfying Inverse Hyperbolic Cosine

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Homework Statement


Simplify the following expression:

[tex]arccosh \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - x^2}}\right) \forall x ∈ (-1, 1)[/tex]


Homework Equations



[tex]cosh(u) = \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - tanh^{2}u}}\right) u ∈ ℝ[/tex]


The Attempt at a Solution



[tex]x = tanhu ∴ u = arctanhx[/tex]

[tex]u ∈ (arctanh(-1), arctanh(1))[/tex]

[tex]arccosh(coshu) = u = arctanhx[/tex]

but that gives me the interval with infinities in it which is what's confusing me.

I have the solution but I don't understand it particularly the first line.

4. Solution

Suppose that [tex]x ∈ [0, 1)[/tex] (Why are they supposing this?)

and that [tex]u = arctanhx ≥ 0[/tex]

so
[tex]cosh(u) = \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - tanh^{2}u}}\right) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - x^2}}[/tex] so therefore

[tex]arccosh \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - x^2}}\right) = arccosh(coshu)[/tex]

but [tex]arccosh(coshu) = u[/tex] as long as [tex]u ≥ 0[/tex] which is the case here

From where [tex]arccosh \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - x^2}}\right) = u = arctanh(x)[/tex]

Since [tex]arccosh \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - x^2}}\right)[/tex] is an even function (another big ? here, don't know what an even function is) in [tex]x ∈ (-1, 1)[/tex] we obtain [tex]\forall x ∈ (-1, 1), arccosh \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - x^2}}\right) = arctanh(|x|)[/tex]


I appreciate the help!
 
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Just as a hint for the last part, an even function is one such that f(-x) = f(x), meaning that the function is symmetric across the y-axis. If a function is even, that means we can solve for it over the interval (0, L) and we've implicitly solved it over (-L, L) since it is the same function on both sides of the axis.