P3X-018
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[SOLVED] Fourier coefficients
For f \in C^{2\pi}\cap C^1[-\pi,\pi], I have to show that
\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}|c_n(f)| < \infty
where c_n(f) is the Fourier coefficient of f;
c_n(f) = (f, e_n) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(t)e^{-int}\,dt
f \in C^{2\pi} means f continuous and that f(-\pi) = f(\pi).
Hint: Use Cauchy-Schwartz (CS) inequality.
(e_n = e^{int})
I just can't seem to use CS in a useful way, I keep running into dead ends:
It is easily shown that c_n(f') = inc_n(f). So by using this and splitting the sum up in 2 parts and using that e_{-n} = \bar{e}_{n}, I get
\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}|c_n(f)| = c_0(f) + \sum_{1}^{\infty}\frac{|(f',e_n)| - |(f',\bar{e}_n)|}{n}
Using triangle inequality I can get
|(f',e_n)| - |(f',\bar{e}_n)| \leq |(f', e_n-\bar{e}_n)| =2|(f', \sin(nt))|.
Even here CS won't be useful. Is there a different an easier approach?
Homework Statement
For f \in C^{2\pi}\cap C^1[-\pi,\pi], I have to show that
\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}|c_n(f)| < \infty
where c_n(f) is the Fourier coefficient of f;
c_n(f) = (f, e_n) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(t)e^{-int}\,dt
f \in C^{2\pi} means f continuous and that f(-\pi) = f(\pi).
Hint: Use Cauchy-Schwartz (CS) inequality.
(e_n = e^{int})
The Attempt at a Solution
I just can't seem to use CS in a useful way, I keep running into dead ends:
It is easily shown that c_n(f') = inc_n(f). So by using this and splitting the sum up in 2 parts and using that e_{-n} = \bar{e}_{n}, I get
\sum_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}|c_n(f)| = c_0(f) + \sum_{1}^{\infty}\frac{|(f',e_n)| - |(f',\bar{e}_n)|}{n}
Using triangle inequality I can get
|(f',e_n)| - |(f',\bar{e}_n)| \leq |(f', e_n-\bar{e}_n)| =2|(f', \sin(nt))|.
Even here CS won't be useful. Is there a different an easier approach?
Last edited: