luke1001
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A.
f is analytic inside and on a simple closed contour C and z0 isn't on C. Show:
\int f'(z)dz/ (z- zo) = \int f(z)dz/ (z- zo)^2
\int f'(z)dz/ (z- zo) = 2\pii f'(zo)\int f(z)dz/ (z- zo)^2 = \int [f(z)dz/(z- zo)]/(z-zo) = 2\pii [f(zo)/(zo-zo)] (I got stuck here!?)
B. C is the unit circle z = e^(i\theta). For any real constant a:
\int ((e^a)^z) /z) dz = 2\pi i (1)
Derive the following (the integral is from 0 to \pi):
\int [(e^a)^(cos\theta)) * cos (a sin\theta)] d\theta = \pi (2)
First, I translated (1) in terms of \theta and got a very long term. Then I substituted the term to (2). But what I got was a huge and complicated mess. Did I miss out something obvious? Thanks!
Homework Statement
f is analytic inside and on a simple closed contour C and z0 isn't on C. Show:
\int f'(z)dz/ (z- zo) = \int f(z)dz/ (z- zo)^2
The Attempt at a Solution
\int f'(z)dz/ (z- zo) = 2\pii f'(zo)\int f(z)dz/ (z- zo)^2 = \int [f(z)dz/(z- zo)]/(z-zo) = 2\pii [f(zo)/(zo-zo)] (I got stuck here!?)
Homework Statement
B. C is the unit circle z = e^(i\theta). For any real constant a:
\int ((e^a)^z) /z) dz = 2\pi i (1)
Derive the following (the integral is from 0 to \pi):
\int [(e^a)^(cos\theta)) * cos (a sin\theta)] d\theta = \pi (2)
The Attempt at a Solution
First, I translated (1) in terms of \theta and got a very long term. Then I substituted the term to (2). But what I got was a huge and complicated mess. Did I miss out something obvious? Thanks!