Grogs
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I'm going on 10 years since I got my (physics) degree, but I haven't done much work besides conceptual stuff in that time and it shows.
Anyway, I decided to crack open my Modern Physics book from school and start working my way through it. The first few problems were OK, but I just can't quite seem to get a handle on how to work through this one.
Here it is:
A beryillium atom (m\approx8.00u) is moving in the positive x direction with a kinetic energy of 60.0 keV. It splits into 2 Helium atoms (m\approx4.00u) with the release of 92.0 keV of Energy. Particle 1 is found to move at 30.0o to the x-axis (\theta_{1}). Using Conservation of Energy and Momentum (i.e., no coordinate transformations), find v1, v2, and \theta_{2}.
Conversion factor: 1u = 9.3150 x 10^5 \frac{keV}{c^2}
I think I've got the COE part set up correctly. Given that m_{1}=m_{2}\equiv m
60.0 keV + 92.0 keV = \frac{1}{2}m(v^2_{1} + v^2_{2})
By substituting known values, I get v^2_{1}+v^2_{2}=8.16x10^{-5} c^2
The COM portion seems to be throwing me for a loop somehow. No matter how I set them up, when I substitute back into the COE equation, I end up with a really nasty looking quadratic equation. I know that the angle given \theta_{1} and the relationship it implies for v1 to v1x and v1y must be the key, but I just can't seem to make it fit.
Thanks for any help you can offer,
Grogs

Here it is:
A beryillium atom (m\approx8.00u) is moving in the positive x direction with a kinetic energy of 60.0 keV. It splits into 2 Helium atoms (m\approx4.00u) with the release of 92.0 keV of Energy. Particle 1 is found to move at 30.0o to the x-axis (\theta_{1}). Using Conservation of Energy and Momentum (i.e., no coordinate transformations), find v1, v2, and \theta_{2}.
Conversion factor: 1u = 9.3150 x 10^5 \frac{keV}{c^2}
I think I've got the COE part set up correctly. Given that m_{1}=m_{2}\equiv m
60.0 keV + 92.0 keV = \frac{1}{2}m(v^2_{1} + v^2_{2})
By substituting known values, I get v^2_{1}+v^2_{2}=8.16x10^{-5} c^2
The COM portion seems to be throwing me for a loop somehow. No matter how I set them up, when I substitute back into the COE equation, I end up with a really nasty looking quadratic equation. I know that the angle given \theta_{1} and the relationship it implies for v1 to v1x and v1y must be the key, but I just can't seem to make it fit.
Thanks for any help you can offer,
Grogs