monty0423
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Hello,
I am trying to solve a problem in university level electromagnetic fields course.
The problem is in the attachment.
My answer is simple, that for the magnetic flux B\rightarrow (vector field B\rightarrow),
the Amperian loop will have a current equivalent to 0 because current through Amperian loop i = I - I = 0.
Therefore, B\rightarrow = 0 because μ0*2*\pi*ρ*B = i = 0.
However, the solution stated that the force will be applied to the right direction.
Could anybody enlighten me with what is wrong with my reasoning?
I am trying to solve a problem in university level electromagnetic fields course.
The problem is in the attachment.
My answer is simple, that for the magnetic flux B\rightarrow (vector field B\rightarrow),
the Amperian loop will have a current equivalent to 0 because current through Amperian loop i = I - I = 0.
Therefore, B\rightarrow = 0 because μ0*2*\pi*ρ*B = i = 0.
However, the solution stated that the force will be applied to the right direction.
Could anybody enlighten me with what is wrong with my reasoning?