mhill
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if we knew how to solve f(x)= 0 mod (p^{l-1}) (1)
could we solve then f(x)= 0 mod (p^{l}) for integer 'l'
the idea is, if it were easy to solve f(x)= 0 mod (p) then we could easily find a solution to (1) but i do not know how to do it.
could we solve then f(x)= 0 mod (p^{l}) for integer 'l'
the idea is, if it were easy to solve f(x)= 0 mod (p) then we could easily find a solution to (1) but i do not know how to do it.