Sphere Rolling vs. Sliding Down a Ramp

AI Thread Summary
Two spheres of equal radius but unknown masses are compared as they move down a ramp: one slides without friction while the other rolls without slipping. The discussion centers on determining which sphere reaches the bottom first and proving the outcome. The sliding sphere converts all its potential energy into kinetic energy, while the rolling sphere's energy is divided between translational and rotational kinetic energy due to its moment of inertia. The conclusion drawn is that the rolling sphere will reach the bottom first, as it utilizes its energy more efficiently. Understanding the energy transformations and applying Newton's laws are key to solving the problem.
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Homework Statement



Let there be two spheres, of equal radius but unknown masses (mass isn't important).
Both move down a ramp of angle \theta, where \theta can be any angle but 90 deg. or 0 deg.
The first sphere slides down the ramp with no (negligible) friction. This sphere does not roll at all.
The second sphere rolls down the ramp. This sphere does not slip, and thus, its only movement is caused by the rolling, not a sliding motion.

If both spheres are released from the same displacement up the ramp from the ramp's end, at the same time, which will reach the bottom of the ramp first?
Prove that this is so


Homework Equations


Moment of inertia equations. F=MA. Motion with constant acceleration equations.


The Attempt at a Solution


I tried manipulating some of the formulas, but was not able to get very far. I didn't find a way to relate time to the rolling (not sliding) ball.
 
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Compare the forces acting on each. Then apply Newton's 2nd law.
 
You can also use energy, might be easier.
 
Any other help?... I still am a bit stuck.
 
Sure, let's examine the energy transformations of the sliding ball. We start out with purely potential energy; however, as the ball reaches the end of the incline, all the potential energy has subsequently been converted into kinetic energy. Hence, PE = KE.

Now apply similar logic to the rolling ball and interpret the results.
 
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Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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