Spherical gas chamber, change of pressure

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on calculating the time it takes for the pressure in a spherical gas chamber to decrease from an initial pressure (p0) to a final pressure (p) under specific conditions. The user attempts to derive the equation for time using collision theory and integrates the relevant equations but encounters discrepancies with the teacher's solution. The correct expression for time, derived from the integration process, includes a square root term that the teacher's equation lacks. Ultimately, the user confirms their calculation yields a time of approximately 3.24 seconds, suggesting a potential error in the teacher's approach. The conversation emphasizes the importance of questioning and verifying solutions in physics.
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Homework Statement


A sphere is filled with a gas which has a constant temperature T. The pressure in the sphere starts at p0 and the spheres radius is r. Assume that a small area (A) of the sphere is held at a very low temperature, while the rest of the surface holds the temperature T. Also assume that all the molecules that hit the surface A condense and do not return to their gas state. Calculate the time it takes for the pressure to fall from p0 to p.

Given information
r = 10 cm
A = 1 cm^2
T = 300 K (kelvin)
m = 2.98*10^-26 kg
p0 = 10 torr
p = 1*10^-4 torr

Homework Equations


(1) Amount of collisions ns = p / sqrt(2*PI*m*Kb*T)
(2) pV = NKbT, where Kb is Boltzmanns constant
(3) Collisions per area ns*A

The Attempt at a Solution



If you multiply the amount of collisions with the area being held at a low temperature i reckon you should get the amount of molecules hitting it, which then integrated should give a time.
Thus, dN/dp = (dN/dp)*(dp/dt). From (2) i know that dN/dp = V/(KbT).
and dNdp/dpdt is the amount of molecules which change the pressure, so dNdp/dpdt = -ns*A (i make it negative because they decrease go down as they condense).

So far i think i have it mostly right, from looking at the correct answer written by my teacher. But if you see a problem with the way i think please tell me, as my teachers answer is very non descriptive in its thought process.

So now i have (from (1) and(3)) dNdp/dpdt = -A*p / sqrt(2*PI*m*Kb*T).
With some math-e-magic [dN/dp = V / (Kb*T)];
V*dp/(Kb*T*dt) = -A*p / sqrt(2*PI*m*Kb*T).
I isolate dp/p = (-A*Kb*T / (V * sqrt(2*PI*m*Kb*T))) dt

And here is where things go awfully wrong for me! I must be making some fundamental mistake when integrating or something! I feel like i should integrate with regard to the time so i should get something like

ln(p0/p) = -t*V *sqrt(2*PI*m*Kb*T) / (A*Kb*T) and then isolate t but my teachers answer tells me this is wrong...

please help!

t should become 3.24 seconds. The equation my teacher gets for t is -(V/A)ln(p/p0)(2*PI*M/(R*T)) where M = m * Avogadros constant and R = Kb * Avogadros constant. I don't understand where the square root has gone for 1 thing!
 
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(Bump). I Really do need an answer to this!
 
I can't see where you go wrong, everything you say seems to be correct. I calculated it by your method and found t =3.24 sec..

Step by step (k is Boltzmann's constant):

<br /> 1. \ \ \ \frac{-n_s A k T}{V} = \frac{d p}{d t} \\<br />
<br /> 2. \ \ \ -\frac{k T A}{V \sqrt{2 \pi m k T}} \int ^t _0 dt = \int ^p _{p_0} \frac{dp}{p} \\<br />
<br /> 3. \ \ \ \frac{A}{V} \sqrt{\frac{kT}{2 \pi m}} (-t) = \ln{\frac{p}{p_0} } \\<br />
<br /> 4. \ \ \ t=\frac{V}{A} \sqrt{\frac{2\pi m}{kT} } \ln{\frac{p_0}{p}} <br />

which numerically gives t=3.24 seconds. Your teacher seems to be wrong about his/her equation, there is definitely a square root in there (and there definitely is one if you want to get t=3.24 s).
 
Last edited:
Thank you so much for your answer. Makes perfect sense. I knew i was not crazy!

I will report this discrepancy to my teacher post haste =)Edit: Are you sure you are susposed to reverse ln(p(p0)? Is it to get rid of the minus sign? Because -ln(p/p0) = ln( (p/p0)^-1 ) ??
 
That's true, of course you don't have to reverse the logarithm. I just did it since it felt more comfortable to get a positive sign in the expression for t. (I know that p0>p so ln(p0/p) and thus t has a positive sign.)

It is generally true that
<br /> \ln{\frac{a}{b}}=\ln{\bigg ( \frac{b}{a} \bigg )^{-1}}=-\ln{\frac{b}{a}}<br />

I'm glad I could be of help! And sure, you can't always trust what the professor says and that's what being a physicist is really all about - always question things.
 
Yeah. Having a positive expression for time did always sit better with me as well ;)
 
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