center o bass
- 545
- 2
Hi. I just wondered why we use a 1/\sqrt{V} in the Fourier expansion of the vector potential. A regular 3 dimensional Fourier expansion is just
f(\vec r) = \sum_{\vec k} c_\vec{k} e^{i \vec k \cdot \vec r}
but as the solution to the equation
(\frac{\partial ^2}{\partial t^2} - \nabla^2 ) \vec A(\vec r,t) = 0
one usually writes
\vec A(\vec r,t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{V}}\sum_{\vec k} \vec A_{0 \vec{k}}(t) e^{i \vec k \cdot \vec r}.
What is the reason for this? Doesn't this also screw up the dimension of the euation when \vec A_{0 \vec k} already has the same dimension as the vector potential since the plane wave solutions are
\vec A_{0 \vec k}(t) e^{i \vec k \cdot \vec r}?
f(\vec r) = \sum_{\vec k} c_\vec{k} e^{i \vec k \cdot \vec r}
but as the solution to the equation
(\frac{\partial ^2}{\partial t^2} - \nabla^2 ) \vec A(\vec r,t) = 0
one usually writes
\vec A(\vec r,t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{V}}\sum_{\vec k} \vec A_{0 \vec{k}}(t) e^{i \vec k \cdot \vec r}.
What is the reason for this? Doesn't this also screw up the dimension of the euation when \vec A_{0 \vec k} already has the same dimension as the vector potential since the plane wave solutions are
\vec A_{0 \vec k}(t) e^{i \vec k \cdot \vec r}?