What is the correct way to use Stirling's approximation in this example?

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Homework Statement


I don't really understand how to use Stirling's approximation. here's an example
you flip 1000 coins, whts the probability of getting exactly 500 head and 500tails

Homework Equations


N!=NNe-N(2pieN)1/2

The Attempt at a Solution


wht they did was
21000 total number outcome
\Omega(500)=1000!/500!2 multiplicity
than used the Stirling's approximation to get this which I don't get how. What do I plug in for N
\Omega(500)=21000/(500pie)1/2
P=\Omega(500)/21000= 1/(500pie)1/2= .025

thanks
 
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you divide the stirling approximation for N=1000 by the square of the stirling approximation for N=500. And it's Pi not pie silly
 
lol thanks,
so it would be 10001000e-1000(2pi1000)1/2/ (500500e-500(2pi500)1/2)2
 
yes and that simplifies to what you want
 
um I don't think that is right i keep getting overflow error.
nvm after typing it in wolfam alpha it worked but how would i do it on my calculator, o well lol
 
Last edited:
leonne said:
um I don't think that is right i keep getting overflow error.
nvm after typing it in wolfam alpha it worked but how would i do it on my calculator, o well lol
These are very big numbers. You might find it easier to reduce the fraction as a whole rather than work out the denominator and numerator separately.

AM
 
We're going to need a bigger calculator.
 
fzero said:
We're going to need a bigger calculator.
Not really. The expression reduces to:

\frac{\Omega(500)}{2^{1000}} = \frac{(2\pi *1000)^{1/2}}{2\pi*500} = \frac{1}{(500\pi)^{1/2}} = .025

AM
 
The Stirling's approximation you want to use for this is

\ln(n) \simeq n\ln(n) - n

This is applicable for n \gg 1. So, for your example

\omega = \frac{1000!}{500!500!}

Take the logarithm of both sides and we find

\omega = \ln(1000!) - 2\ln(500!)

Which, using Stirling's approximation, gives us

\omega = 1000\ln(1000) - 1000 - 2(500\ln(500) - 500)

At this point it is easy to find that \omega = 10^{300}
 
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