Strange Relation: $\sum$ (m$^2$+n$^2$) = 2$\pi$ Integral

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\sum\ (m^2+n^2) = 2\pi\int^{\infty}_{1} (\frac{1}{r^2} r dr)

The sum goes over \mathbb{N}\times \mathbb{N}
 
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Wait, that is what I mean.

\sum\ (m^2+n^2)^{-1} \sim 2 \pi\int^{\infty}_{1} (\frac{1}{r^2} r dr)

The sum goes over \mathbb{N}\times \mathbb{N}

I can make no sense of it.

Edit: Now everything fixed.
 
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The sum (m^2+n^2) clearly diverges. You must mean 1/(m^2+n^2). Then it's just an integral estimate. And it still diverges.
 
And the right side makes no sense. In 2\pi\int^{\infty}_{1} (\frac{1}{r^2} r dr), "r" is clearly intended to be a vector (otherwise it reduces to \int 1/r dr= ln(r)) in which case integrating from 1 to infinity doesn't make sense. My guess is that the right side is supposed to be integrated over all of R2.
 
Dick said:
The sum (m^2+n^2) clearly diverges. You must mean 1/(m^2+n^2). Then it's just an integral estimate. And it still diverges.

Right, that's what I meant. I'm still fighting with latex.

What you mean by 'just an integral estimate'. Why are both expressions \sim?

And, yes my book says too, it diverges.
 
Icosahedron said:
\sum\ (m^2+n^2)^{-1} \sim 2 \pi\int^{\infty}_{1} (\frac{1}{r^2} r dr)

The sum goes over \mathbb{N}\times \mathbb{N}

I can make no sense of it.

Hi Icosahedron! :smile:

Looks like you're supposed to integrate something over x and y from 1 to ∞ which has poles "of integral 1/r²" whenever x and y are both whole numbers, and then convert to polar coordinates. :smile:
 
The right side is the integral of 1/(x^2+y^2) over the plane (excluding some stuff near zero) in polar coordinates. It should be a reasonable estimate for the integer sum (also excluding (0,0), I hope). Just like the integral test for infinite series.
 
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Thanks!
 
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