knew to find the acceleration I needed to use a=QE/M, but since I didn't have E I had to find it. Used F(mag field)=Q*V*B*Sin(theta). I found theta from drawing the ijz axis and using trig, I got 59 degrees.

After I solved this I plugged it in to F=QE to get E. Then plugged that into a=QE/M, and got an incorrect answer..not sure where I went wrong.

Problem 2:

for a:
equations I used:

P=MV
R=MV/QB -> V= RQB/M

plugged 2nd into 1st, M cancelled, answer wasn't correct. eh?

for b:

not sure i know the equation for this problem...same as in classical physics?

1) There's nothing wrong with your first problem except that you seem to be insisting there's an electric field. There isn't. The Lorentz force says:
[tex]\mathbf{F}=q\mathbf{E}+q\mathbf{v}X\mathbf{B}[/tex]. Since there is no E, the first term drops out. Then you calculated F, as you did. Now simply apply F=ma.

2) Part a) looks right, I'm not sure why things aren't working. What answer did you get and what does your book say? For part b) I would assume that you aren't being relativistic or quantum mechanical, so yes use the Classical formula.