- #1
dogma
- 35
- 0
Hello!
For the life of me, I can't seem to figure this out (vapor lock in the ol' brain):
Show that if G has only 1 p-Sylow subgroup, then it must be normal.
I know it something to do with showing it's a conjugate to itself (right coset = left coset?). I'm just not quite sure how to go about showing this.
Thanks for your time, help, and patience with me.
dogma
For the life of me, I can't seem to figure this out (vapor lock in the ol' brain):
Show that if G has only 1 p-Sylow subgroup, then it must be normal.
I know it something to do with showing it's a conjugate to itself (right coset = left coset?). I'm just not quite sure how to go about showing this.
Thanks for your time, help, and patience with me.
dogma