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For the life of me, I can't seem to figure this out (vapor lock in the ol' brain):

Show that if G has only 1 p-Sylow subgroup, then it must be normal.

I know it something to do with showing it's a conjugate to itself (right coset = left coset?). I'm just not quite sure how to go about showing this.

Thanks for your time, help, and patience with me.

dogma

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# Sylow Question

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