Greger
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hey
i've been working on this question
http://img138.imageshack.us/img138/6457/gdgdad.jpg
the first two parts of the question seem easy enough, you just simple substitute the wave functions into the symmetric and anti-symmetric wave function definition.
ψ=ψ1(1)ψ2(2)±ψ2(1)ψ1(2)
Then the second part of the question you just take ψ*ψ for both cases.
Theres two parts I am a little worried about,
Is the potential V=kr2 irrelevant? it seems to be irrelevant to me but i just wanted to make sure.
i'm also not sure how to do 1c,
i would say that the symmetric wave function would have a larger expectation value since the wave function is
ψs=ψ1(1)ψ2(2)+ψ2(1)ψ1(2)
and not -, so it would be bigger, but I'm not sure if that is correct,
is V irrelevant and 1c as simple as i put it?
i've been working on this question
http://img138.imageshack.us/img138/6457/gdgdad.jpg
the first two parts of the question seem easy enough, you just simple substitute the wave functions into the symmetric and anti-symmetric wave function definition.
ψ=ψ1(1)ψ2(2)±ψ2(1)ψ1(2)
Then the second part of the question you just take ψ*ψ for both cases.
Theres two parts I am a little worried about,
Is the potential V=kr2 irrelevant? it seems to be irrelevant to me but i just wanted to make sure.
i'm also not sure how to do 1c,
i would say that the symmetric wave function would have a larger expectation value since the wave function is
ψs=ψ1(1)ψ2(2)+ψ2(1)ψ1(2)
and not -, so it would be bigger, but I'm not sure if that is correct,
is V irrelevant and 1c as simple as i put it?
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