Taylor Polynomial of 6th Degree for ln(1-x^2) with c=0

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on finding the 6th-degree Taylor polynomial for ln(1-x^2) centered at c=0, with the derivatives evaluated using the hint provided. The user successfully derived the polynomial as -x^2 - (1/2)x^4 - (1/3)x^6, confirming the correctness of their calculations. A distinction is made between a Taylor polynomial, which has a finite number of terms, and a Taylor series, which is an infinite series. The user seeks clarification on whether to express the Taylor series in standard form or sigma notation, indicating a preference for the latter while questioning the necessity of finding a general expression for the derivatives. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the difference between finite and infinite series in Taylor expansions.
shan
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I just want to check my answer. The question asks for the Taylor polynomial of degree 6 for ln(1-x^2) for -1<x<1 with c=0.
I got tired after differentiating 6 times so I'm worried I made some mistakes along the way. The question also said: hint: evaluate the derivatives using the formula ln(1-x^2)=ln(1+x)+ln(1-x)

So I differentiated ln(1+x)+ln(1-x) to get 1/(1+x) - 1/(1-x) for the first derivative and so on until the 6th derivative and I got:

-2(x)^2/2! -12(x)^4/4! - 240(x^6)/6!
 
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Yes, that's correct.

(Of course, it can be simplified to -x^2- (1/2)x^4- (1/3)x^6.)
 
Yay, thank you very much :)

There's also something else I want to check. The last part of the question asks:
Write f(x) = ln(1-x^2) as a Taylor series.

I'm a little confused with the distinction between a Taylor polynomial and a Taylor series. With the previous question on the Taylor polynomial, there was a specific number of terms (Taylor polynomial to degree 6). Is the Taylor series different in that you need to write it as an ongoing series? In which case, do I write it as

ln(1-x^2) = -x^2- (1/2)x^4- (1/3)x^6 -...
centered at c=0 and -1<x<1

or do I need to write it using the sigma notation?

sigma (n=0 to infinity) f^(n)(0)(x^n)/n!
 
Sigma notation is likely what they're looking for, though it probably doesn't matter as long as you include the general term (ie. in all likelihood they want you to find the general expression for \left[ \frac{d^n}{dx^n} \ln (1-x^2) \right]_{x=0}, [call it a_n], and then write your series as \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{a_n}{n!} x^n).
 
I don't understand, why would I find the general expression for \left[ \frac{d^n}{dx^n} \ln (1-x^2) \right]_{x=0} to find \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{a_n}{n!} x^n ??
 
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