Wuberdall
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Hi PF.
If I have two identical bosons, one in the single-particle state \phi_{a}(x) and the other in the single-particle state \phi_{b}(x), the two-particle state of the system would then be :
\psi(x_{1},x_{2}) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\big(\phi_{a}(x_{1})\phi_{b}(x_{2}) + \phi_{b}(x_{1})\phi_{a}(x_{2})\big)
right ?
Then if both bosons are in the same single-particle state, say \phi_{a}(x), then the two-particle state according the equation above, would be :
\psi(x_{1},x_{2}) = \sqrt{2}\phi_{a}(x_{1})\phi_{a}(x_{2})
But this two-particle state isn't normalized, due to factor of \sqrt{2}.
I can't see were I go wrong, someone who can help ?
If I have two identical bosons, one in the single-particle state \phi_{a}(x) and the other in the single-particle state \phi_{b}(x), the two-particle state of the system would then be :
\psi(x_{1},x_{2}) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\big(\phi_{a}(x_{1})\phi_{b}(x_{2}) + \phi_{b}(x_{1})\phi_{a}(x_{2})\big)
right ?
Then if both bosons are in the same single-particle state, say \phi_{a}(x), then the two-particle state according the equation above, would be :
\psi(x_{1},x_{2}) = \sqrt{2}\phi_{a}(x_{1})\phi_{a}(x_{2})
But this two-particle state isn't normalized, due to factor of \sqrt{2}.
I can't see were I go wrong, someone who can help ?