DrClaude said:You don't start the problem correctly. The ##|S_z = + \hbar/2 \rangle## state is not an eigenstate of the Hamiltonian, so after a time ##T_2##, the state of the system is not ##e^{-i E T_2 / \hbar} |S_z = + \hbar/2 \rangle##.
In which direction is the magnetic field?BREAD said:H=-(e/mc)S * B , Sz and H differ just by a multiplicative constant, so they commute. The Sz eigenstates are also energy eigenstates.
In the problem, megnetic field is Bx direction.DrClaude said:In which direction is the magnetic field?
So how can you rewrite ##\mathbf{S} \cdot \mathbf{B}##?BREAD said:In the problem, megnetic field is Bx direction.
Sx * BDrClaude said:So how can you rewrite ##\mathbf{S} \cdot \mathbf{B}##?
DrClaude said:You have to express the initial state in terms of the eigenstates of the Hamiltonian.
Don't forget the normalization factor.BREAD said:Sx and H have same eigenstates, so the initial state l+> is lSx+> + lSx->
DrClaude said:Don't forget the normalization factor.
But now that the state is expressed in terms of the eigenstates of the Hamiltonian, it should be easy to calculate the time evolution.
Why? This is a very standard problem in QM and illustrates nicely the concept of precession.BREAD said:I think the answer is weird
I replied the answer that i triedDrClaude said:Why? This is a very standard problem in QM and illustrates nicely the concept of precession.
Ok, I had replied before you posted the solution.BREAD said:I replied the answer that i tried
I got it, then how can i approach problem(b) i think the result of first measurement is same with (a)DrClaude said:Ok, I had replied before you posted the solution.
There is a problem, as you can clearly see that the prbability you get ranges from 0 to 2. Check again how you calculate the absolute value squared.
The probability of measuring Sz = +ħ/2 is indeed given by the same equation, replacing T2 by T1. But you already know the measurement result, so you need to figure out what you get at T2.BREAD said:I got it, then how can i approach problem(b) i think the result of first measurement is same with (a)
DrClaude said:The probability of measuring Sz = +ħ/2 is indeed given by the same equation, replacing T2 by T1. But you already know the measurement result, so you need to figure out what you get at T2.
By the way, you can simplify the result you get using explicit values for E1 and E2.