Satvik Pandey
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ehild said:I meant the constant sqrt(kq^2/(mr)). You seem to omit q^2. q=1 μC.
ehild
Yes I forgot that q=1 μC.
It should be ∫√2x/√(1−2x)dx=∫3 dt.
The discussion revolves around calculating the time of collision between two point charges, q1=1μC and q2=-1μC, each with a mass of 1g, initially 1 meter apart. The participants utilize Newton's laws and conservation of energy to derive the motion equations, ultimately leading to the conclusion that the time of collision is approximately 0.74 seconds. The conversation highlights the importance of using the reduced mass method and Kepler's laws to simplify the problem of two bodies accelerating towards each other due to electric forces.
PREREQUISITESPhysics students, educators, and anyone interested in classical mechanics and electrostatics, particularly those tackling problems involving forces between charged particles.
ehild said:I meant the constant sqrt(kq^2/(mr)). You seem to omit q^2. q=1 μC.
ehild
ehild said:Yes. So what is t then?
ehild
Satvik Pandey said:Just before the collision their acceleration is infinite.Are their velocities also infinite just before the collision?
ehild said:The problem is equivalent if we consider a virtual body of reduced mass (μ=1/(1/m1 + 1/m2) about the centre of the force, where the distance from the centre is equal to the distance between the bodies in the original problem.
ehild said:The straight line can be considered as a very elongated ellipse. At the limit, the focal point is at the opposite end of the distorted ellipse.
As the particles starts coming towards each other their potential begins to increase(E_{p}=kq^2/r so if r decreases E_{p} increases) and their kinetic energy also increases (because acceleration increases hence velocity also increases).Doesn't it violates law the of conservation of energy?ehild said:Yes. The total energy is finite, the potential energy is negative infinite at collision so the E must be positive infinite.
ehild
ehild said:Yes, it can be. The electric field is also a central force, like gravity.
The two-body problem can be reduced by a single-body problem with the reduced mass method. The problem is equivalent if we consider a virtual body of reduced mass (μ=1/(1/m1 + 1/m2) about the centre of the force where the distance from the centre is equal to the distance between the bodies in the original problem
ehild
I don't understand what you trying to say from this line.ehild said:where the distance from the centre is equal to the distance between the bodies in the original problem.
ehild
Tanya Sharma said:There are three terms involved Center of Mass , Center of force and Central body (M+m) . Isn't the Central body also the Center of force ? What are the roles of Center of Mass and Central body in the reduced mass approach ?
Tanya Sharma said:Could you explain it a bit more ? I am not very clear with this idea of masses orbiting in straight line .
Thanks
Satvik Pandey said:As the particles starts coming towards each other their potential begins to increase(E_{p}=kq^2/r so if r decreases E_{p} increases) and their kinetic energy also increases (because acceleration increases hence velocity also increases).Doesn't it violates law the of conservation of energy?
Satvik Pandey said:What is centre of force?
I don't understand what you trying to say from this line.
Satvik Pandey said:But what is the position of this imaginary particle and how this will help me in solving problem which I have posted in post#40.
Write up the equation for conservation of energy: 0.5 μ (dr/dt)2 - q1q2/r=-q1q2/R and solve with the same method you have applied for the OP.
Tanya Sharma said:The reduced mass would be at the same distance as between the two charged particles in the original problem.Initially it is at a distance of 1 m .
Satvik Pandey said:What I have I understood till here is here----
The two-body problem can be reduced by a single-body problem with the reduced mass method.In this we assume that there is a 'reduce mass'(m1m1/m1+m1) instead of two body.Am I right till here.
You said that the reduced mass would be at the same distance as between the two charged particles in the original problem.But when we measure distance we need to specify an origin from where it is measured.This 'distance' in this case is measured from which origin.
Here is the derivation how a two-body problem can be reduced to one body-problem. I write it in one dimension,but the derivation is the same for 3D.
There are two point masses, m1, m2. Their coordinates are x1 and x2. m1 exerts force f12 on m2 and m2 exerts force f21 on m1. Assume the forces act along the line connecting the masses.
f12=-f21=F
m_1\ddot x_1=-F.....(1)
m_2\ddot x_2=F.....(2)
Add the equations:
m_1\ddot x_1+m_2\ddot x_2=0....(3)
The coordinate of the centre of mass is X
X=\frac{m_1 x_1+m_2 x_2}{m_1 +m_2}
so you can write equation (3) as (m_1+m_2)\ddot X=0
The centre of mass moves with constant velocity. You can choose the frame of reference fixed to the CM: Then X=0,
m_1x_1+m_2x_2=0.
Divide equation (1) with m1, equation(2) with m2 and subtract them.
\ddot x_1=-\frac{F}{m_1}
\ddot x_2=\frac{F}{m_2}
\ddot x_2-\ddot x_1=\frac{F}{m_2}+\frac{F}{m_1}
Denote x2 -x1 = x
and
\frac{1}{μ}=\frac{1}{m_1}+\frac{1}{m_2}
You get the equation for the relative coordinate x=x2-x1 in terms of the reduced mass μ and the force of interaction F
μ \ddot x= F, the same, as in case of a single body of mass μ.
Thank you for the explanationTanya Sharma said:The origin can be anywhere .For example consider charge q1 at (1,0) and charge q2 is at (2,0) or charge q1 at (4,0) and charge q2 is at (5,0) . The thing that matters is their relative separation.
Note carefully that 'r' in the above equation represents the relative distance between the charges i.e x2-x1.Initially r= 1m but decreases gradually . If you think in terms of hypothetical reduced mass μ ,it is at a distance 'r' from the center of force (some hypothetical source exerting force kq2/r2),you may consider the center of force to be at the origin and the reduced mass to be at (1,0) initially .It is as if some mass μ is under the influence of an attractive force kq2/r2 just as Earth is under the influence of gravitational force by sun given by GMm/r2 .
Read the below post made by ehild in an earlier thread .
From eq(1) I put the value of dr/dt in eq (2)ehild said:You calculated with the distance of the particles previously. You can work with that distance again.
Chosse a system of coordinates with the CM as origin. Let be x1 and x2 the coordinates of the particles. Then m1x1+m2x2=0 x1=-x2m2/(m1)
Choose a new variable, r=x2-x1. Then x1=-rm2/(m1+m2) and x2=rm1/(m1+m2)
The velocities are
v1=-dr/dt m2/(m1+m2)...(1)
v2= dr/dt m1/(m1+m2)
The kinetic energy is KE=0.5 μ (dr/dt)2 where μ=m1m2/(m1+m2). μ is called the reduced mass of the particles.
The potential energy is PE=-q1q2/r. Initially the distance is R and the particles are in rest.
Write up the equation for conservation of energy: 0.5 μ (dr/dt)2 - q1q2/r=-q1q2/R ...(2)and solve with the same method you have applied for the OP.
ehild
ehild said:I do not see what you want to do.
ehild
ehild said:Instead of x1 and x2, use the reduced mass method and solve the problem for r(t), the distance between the particles.
From conservation of energy:
0.5 μ (dr/dt)2 -k q1q2/r=-kq1q2/R. r is the distance between the particles, R is the initial distance, R=1 m and μ is the reduced mass.
\frac{dr}{dt} = -\sqrt {\frac{2q_1q_2 k}{ μ }\left(\frac{1}{r} -\frac{1}{R}\right)}
Integrate as before, r goes from R to 0.
ehild
ehild said:Instead of x1 and x2, use the reduced mass method and solve the problem for r(t), the distance between the particles.
From conservation of energy:
0.5 μ (dr/dt)2 -k q1q2/r=-kq1q2/R. r is the distance between the particles, R is the initial distance, R=1 m and μ is the reduced mass.
\frac{dr}{dt} = -\sqrt {\frac{2q_1q_2 k}{ μ }\left(\frac{1}{r} -\frac{1}{R}\right)}
Integrate as before, r goes from R to 0.
ehild
Yes.Satvik Pandey said:Thank you ehild.This my hopefully last query in this question.In reducing two body problem into single body problem reduced mass is located at a distance from the center of force which is equal to distance of separation between two bodies.
Yes. Note that the force is interaction between the real particles. The force the imaginary particle "feels" is equal to that force of interaction, but as if it was exerted by a centre of force in the origin.Satvik Pandey said:But what is the magnitude and direction of force which acts on the reduced mass.Is magnitude of force acting on reduced mass is equal to the force acting on any individual particle.
Satvik Pandey said:And if the direction of force on particle is towards the CM of system then the direction of force on reduced mass is towards the center of force.Am I right.