Torque <-> rotational velocity?

AI Thread Summary
To calculate the change in rotational velocity of a rigid object due to an applied impulse, one can start by determining the torque using the cross product of the force vector and the offset vector from the center of mass. The discussion highlights the importance of considering the inertia tensor, which varies in inertial frames, and suggests performing calculations in a body-fixed frame for convenience. The transport theorem is referenced to relate the time derivatives of angular momentum in inertial and body-fixed frames. Ultimately, the correct approach involves applying the torque directly to find the change in angular velocity. This method simplifies the problem and provides the necessary results.
Hnefi
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
Hello. I'm having a bit of a problem. I need to calculate a change in rotational velocity on a rigid object given a force (actually an impulse, but nevermind) acting on that object.

I can calculate the torque without problem, by doing the cross product of the force vector and the offset vector, the offset being the difference between the point on which the force is applied and the centre of mass for the object. Fine. But I need to translate that into rotational velocity, or rather change in rotational velocity.

The object has a known mass and the rotation must be calculated in global Euler angles (as in it doesn't matter how the object is rotated or what its current angular velocity is). How do I do this? I tried projecting the force vector onto the cross product between the offset vector and the torque, but that didn't work. I've been searching the 'net, but for some reason the answer to this question is pretty darn hard to find.

Thanks in advance for any help.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hnefi said:
Hello. I'm having a bit of a problem. I need to calculate a change in rotational velocity on a rigid object given a force (actually an impulse, but nevermind) acting on that object.

I can calculate the torque without problem, by doing the cross product of the force vector and the offset vector, the offset being the difference between the point on which the force is applied and the centre of mass for the object. Fine. But I need to translate that into rotational velocity, or rather change in rotational velocity.

The object has a known mass and the rotation must be calculated in global Euler angles (as in it doesn't matter how the object is rotated or what its current angular velocity is). How do I do this? I tried projecting the force vector onto the cross product between the offset vector and the torque, but that didn't work. I've been searching the 'net, but for some reason the answer to this question is pretty darn hard to find.

Thanks in advance for any help.
Hi Hnefi and welcome to PF,

Am I missing something here, or isn't this just a simple application of,

\sum_i \boldmath{F}_i\times\boldmath{r}_i = \mathbb{I}_G\frac{d}{dt}\boldmath{\omega}
 
Ack, you're right. I overengineered the problem. Simply applying the torque directly did the trick. Thanks for your help.
 
Hootenanny said:
Hi Hnefi and welcome to PF,

Am I missing something here, or isn't this just a simple application of,

\sum_i \boldmath{F}_i\times\boldmath{r}_i = \mathbb{I}_G\frac{d}{dt}\boldmath{\omega}

Not quite that simple. In inertial coordinates, the correct expression is

\sum_i \mathbf{F}_i\times\mathbf{r}_i<br /> = \frac{d\mathbf L_I}{dt}<br /> = \frac{d}{dt}\left({\mathbb{I}}_I\,\mathbf{\omega}_I\right)

where the subscript I on the angular momentum \mathbf L, inertia tensor \mathbb{I} and angular velocity \boldmath{\omega} indicate that the quantities in question are to be expressed in terms of a non-rotating (i.e. inertial) frame. The problem is that the inertia tensor for a rigid body as observed from an inertial frame is not constant. The inertia tensor for a rigid body is constant in a body-fixed frame. It is much more convenient to do the calculations in the body-fixed (i.e., rotating) frame. However, this means that one must introduce a fictitious torque.

The transport theorem relates the time derivative of some vector quantity \mathbf q from the perspective of an inertial observer and a body-fixed observer:

\frac{d \mathbf q}{dt_I} = \frac{d \mathbf q}{dt_B} + \mathbf{\omega} \times \mathbf q

With \mathbf q = \mathbf L, this becomes

\frac{d \mathbf L}{dt_I} = \mathbb{I} \frac{d \mathbf{\omega}}{dt_B} + \mathbf{\omega} \times (\mathbb{I} \,\mathbf{\omega})

Combining with the first equation,

\frac{d \mathbf \omega_B}{dt}<br /> = \mathbb{I}_B^{\;-1}\left(\sum_i \mathbf{F}_{i_B}\times \mathbf{r}_{i_B} - \mathbf{\omega}_B \times (\mathbb{I}_B\, \mathbf{\omega}_B)\right)

Here the subscripts B denote that the quantities in question, including external forces, are to be expressed in body-fixed coordinates.
 
Last edited:
I stand corrected DH. In all honesty I thought the OP mentioned body angles, but I see that I was mistaken.

I doff my cap to you sir, nice post!
 
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top