This question concerns a section from the book(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); Modern Physicsby James Rohlf.

http://srv3.imgonline.com.ua/result_img/imgonline-com-ua-twotoone-Bs4zgy7pruqG.png

He shows that the form of the Wave equation for light remains invariant under a Lorentz boost (4.42):

##\frac{∂^2F}{∂x'^2}+\frac{∂^2F}{∂y'^2}+\frac{∂^2F}{∂z'^2}=\frac{1}{c^2}\frac{∂^2F}{∂t'^2}##

What I am confused about is the lack of F' in these derivations. There is no F', only F.

I always thought that if one wants to show that the form of the Wave equation remains invariant under a Lorentz boost, shouldn't the final equation be:

##\frac{∂^2F'}{∂x'^2}+\frac{∂^2F'}{∂y'^2}+\frac{∂^2F'}{∂z'^2}=\frac{1}{c^2}\frac{∂^2F'}{∂t'^2}## ?

Why is it F instead of F'?

Also, I have to apologize for all the poor concepts and erroneous physics that I post on these forums.

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# I Transformation of Wave Equation and Wave Displacement Value?

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