Trig Quick Question: Solving for Values of θ in 0 ≤ θ ≤ 360 Interval

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The discussion focuses on solving the equation 2sinθ = cosecθ within the interval 0 ≤ θ ≤ 360. The initial approach leads to the solutions sinθ = ±√(1/2), but factoring introduces additional solutions, including sinθ = 0, which is undefined in this context. The reasoning highlights that factoring can create extraneous solutions due to undefined values, similar to the example of the function y=(x(x+1))/x, which has a hole at x=0. The key takeaway is that when solving equations, one must be cautious of undefined values that can mislead the solution process. Understanding the implications of undefined numbers is crucial in avoiding incorrect solutions.
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Solve for values of θ in the interval 0 ≤ θ ≤ 360,

2sinθ = cosecθ

now if I do:

2sinθ = 1/(sinθ) and multiply by sinθ

I can solve sinθ = ±√(1/2)

but if I solve 2sinθ - 1/(sinθ) = 0 and factorise to get sinθ(2 - (1/sin^2θ)) = 0

I get sinθ = 0 which gives me more solutions then needed. I've drawn the graphs of both functions and they meet where the solutions of θ are such that sinθ = ±√(1/2) , then why do I get more solutions if I factorise?
 
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Because at \sin\theta=0 the other factor is undefined.

Think about the function y=\frac{x(x+1)}{x} this is pretty much equivalent to y=x+1 except for the fact that it has a hole at x=0 (the coordinate (0,1)). If we solved this equation for when y=0, clearly the only answer is x=-1, but if we factored out x then what we'd have is:

x\left(\frac{x+1}{x}\right)=0

Which seems like it would have an x=0 solution, but it doesn't by the same reasoning.
 
Mentallic said:
Because at \sin\theta=0 the other factor is undefined.

Think about the function y=\frac{x(x+1)}{x} this is pretty much equivalent to y=x+1 except for the fact that it has a hole at x=0 (the coordinate (0,1)). If we solved this equation for when y=0, clearly the only answer is x=-1, but if we factored out x then what we'd have is:

x\left(\frac{x+1}{x}\right)=0

Which seems like it would have an x=0 solution, but it doesn't by the same reasoning.

I see, thanks.

But why does this happen? Is there a particular reason or just one of those things.
 
phospho said:
I see, thanks.

But why does this happen? Is there a particular reason or just one of those things.

It happens because when we use the rule that if ab=0 then either a, b or both are equal to zero, we are assuming that a and b are real numbers. Undefined numbers and infinite are not real.

Without using any rigor, if we use an undefined number like 1/0 such that a=0 and b=1/0, then ab=1 (again, I'm abusing the maths here just to explain a point, don't take it as being correct). As you can see while we solved for a=0, it turns out that ab didn't turn out to be equal to zero, hence we cannot take a=0 because it is not a solution.
 
thank you
 
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