- #1
Francescos123
- 4
- 0
Hello people of PhysicsForum
Apologies in advance if my prefix selection is inaccurate and for my absolute physics noobness. I know no physics jargon so I'm sure my question will be phrased in the same way a 10 year old might.
So here is my silly, trivial question:
First of all, remove all variables (apart from the ones stated). Same time to pour and same materials etc.
You have 2 cups of hot water (making cups of tea is what brought this thought to me)
Cup 1 & 2 - Pour hot water in (same time etc. (no variables))
Cup 1 - Pour in precise amount of milk (or other cold substance straight out of fridge) let's just say 30 ml. I'm not sure if precise temperature of milk matters, but let's say 5 celsius.
Cup 2 - Leave, do nothing.
* After 5 minutes *
Cup 2: Pour in milk, same as poured into cup 1
At this point, would there be any difference in temperature between the liquid in the cups? I think Cup 2 would end up cooler.
I've asked a few people and am getting mixed views, majority say no difference. Something along the lines of you can't create energy you can only distribute it or something.. Again, as I'm sure you can tell, I am fizix noob.
My logic in thinking that the liquid in the cups would have a different temperature is that the rate of cooling is determined by the difference in the room temperature and the temperature of the liquid, so Cup 2 would be cooler in the end because it would have cooled down faster as there was no cold liquid to drop the temperature, until it had cooled for 5 mins. Then with the milk added it would drop below the temperature of Cup 1. But maybe the milk would affect the temperature less as after 5 minutes the temperature difference between the milk and the liquid would be lower so it wouldn't drop the temperature much?
Seperately:
Surely if i had 2 cups with water at temp. 70C in each and placed one in a room at 45C and the other in a room at 0C the cup in the hotter room would cool down slower...
Thanks for reading, don't laugh at me!
Any responses would be much appreciated
Apologies in advance if my prefix selection is inaccurate and for my absolute physics noobness. I know no physics jargon so I'm sure my question will be phrased in the same way a 10 year old might.
So here is my silly, trivial question:
First of all, remove all variables (apart from the ones stated). Same time to pour and same materials etc.
You have 2 cups of hot water (making cups of tea is what brought this thought to me)
Cup 1 & 2 - Pour hot water in (same time etc. (no variables))
Cup 1 - Pour in precise amount of milk (or other cold substance straight out of fridge) let's just say 30 ml. I'm not sure if precise temperature of milk matters, but let's say 5 celsius.
Cup 2 - Leave, do nothing.
* After 5 minutes *
Cup 2: Pour in milk, same as poured into cup 1
At this point, would there be any difference in temperature between the liquid in the cups? I think Cup 2 would end up cooler.
I've asked a few people and am getting mixed views, majority say no difference. Something along the lines of you can't create energy you can only distribute it or something.. Again, as I'm sure you can tell, I am fizix noob.
My logic in thinking that the liquid in the cups would have a different temperature is that the rate of cooling is determined by the difference in the room temperature and the temperature of the liquid, so Cup 2 would be cooler in the end because it would have cooled down faster as there was no cold liquid to drop the temperature, until it had cooled for 5 mins. Then with the milk added it would drop below the temperature of Cup 1. But maybe the milk would affect the temperature less as after 5 minutes the temperature difference between the milk and the liquid would be lower so it wouldn't drop the temperature much?
Seperately:
Surely if i had 2 cups with water at temp. 70C in each and placed one in a room at 45C and the other in a room at 0C the cup in the hotter room would cool down slower...
Thanks for reading, don't laugh at me!
Any responses would be much appreciated