xman
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Show that if we have N positive numbers
[tex]\left[ p_{i}\right]_{i=1}^{N}[/tex]
such that
[tex]\sum_{i} p_{i} =1[/tex]
then for any N numbers
[tex]\left\{x_{i}\right\}_{i=1}^{N}[/tex]
we have the inequality
[tex]\prod_{i=1}^{N} x_{i}^{2 p_{i}} \leq \sum_{i=1}^{N} p_{i}x_{i}^{2}[/tex]
So I am thinking to show the inequality is true using Lagrange multipliers first take the set
[tex]W = \sum_{i} p_{i}x_{i}^{2}[/tex]
and we want to minimize above subject to constraint
[tex]S = \prod_{i} x_{i}^{2p_{i}}[/tex]
so we form the function
[tex]f^{\star} = f + \lambda g \Rightarrow f^{\star} =\sum_{i} p_{i}x_{i}^{2}+\lambda \left(S-\prod_{i} x_{i}^{2p_{i}}\right)[/tex]
So I think everything so far is ok...my question is how do you differentiate an infinite series and an infinite product. Also in this case is the Lagrange multiplier a single value [tex]\lambda[/tex] or is there one multiplier for each value of i , that is; do I need a [tex]\lambda_{i}[/tex] Any direction or input is greatly appreciated.
[tex]\left[ p_{i}\right]_{i=1}^{N}[/tex]
such that
[tex]\sum_{i} p_{i} =1[/tex]
then for any N numbers
[tex]\left\{x_{i}\right\}_{i=1}^{N}[/tex]
we have the inequality
[tex]\prod_{i=1}^{N} x_{i}^{2 p_{i}} \leq \sum_{i=1}^{N} p_{i}x_{i}^{2}[/tex]
So I am thinking to show the inequality is true using Lagrange multipliers first take the set
[tex]W = \sum_{i} p_{i}x_{i}^{2}[/tex]
and we want to minimize above subject to constraint
[tex]S = \prod_{i} x_{i}^{2p_{i}}[/tex]
so we form the function
[tex]f^{\star} = f + \lambda g \Rightarrow f^{\star} =\sum_{i} p_{i}x_{i}^{2}+\lambda \left(S-\prod_{i} x_{i}^{2p_{i}}\right)[/tex]
So I think everything so far is ok...my question is how do you differentiate an infinite series and an infinite product. Also in this case is the Lagrange multiplier a single value [tex]\lambda[/tex] or is there one multiplier for each value of i , that is; do I need a [tex]\lambda_{i}[/tex] Any direction or input is greatly appreciated.