Trying to understand a constant in the phase shift (or difference?) of 2 waves

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on a section from Hecht's book on optics, specifically regarding the representation of spherical waves from two sources. The user questions why Hecht dropped vector notation for the wave equations, noting that while k and r are parallel, the lack of justification seems unusual. Participants clarify that using scalar k simplifies the mathematics for spherical waves, contrasting with the vector notation used for plane waves. The phase difference, δ, is derived from the differences in optical path lengths, which is not straightforward due to the different measurement lines for r1 and r2. Ultimately, the conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding the context of spherical versus plane waves in optics.
fluidistic
Gold Member
Messages
3,928
Reaction score
272
I'm reading through Hecht's book on Optics and I fail to understand something. I think it's the third edition, page 380, chapter 9 (Interference).
So he's talking about spherical waves emitted by 2 sources. He says that the waves can be written under the form \vec E _1 (r_1 ,t)=\vec E_{01} (r_1)} e^{i(kr_1 -\omega t + \varepsilon _1)} and \vec E _2 (r_2 ,t)=\vec E_{02} (r_1)} e^{i(kr_2 -\omega t + \varepsilon _2)}.
First questions: Hecht's was always meticulous writing \vec k \cdot \vec x for plane waves, now he dropped the vector notation? I don't understand why. Ok k and r are parallels in this case so \vec k \cdot \vec r =kr, but he never justified it, I find it very strange. I'm likely missing something. Any help to understand here will be very welcome.
Then he went to say "The terms r_1 and r_2 are the radii of the spherical wavefronts overlapping at P; they specify the distances from the sources to P. In this case \delta = k(r_1-r_2)+(\varepsilon _1 - \varepsilon _2)."
In case you wonder, P is just a considered point over a screen far away from the sources. \delta is the phase difference according to Hecht.
I do not understand why \delta is worth what it's worth. I realize that the difference in optical path of the waves emitted by both sources is \frac{(r_1-r_2)}{n} where n is the refractive index of the medium. How do you reach \delta form it?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
hi fluidistic! :smile:
fluidistic said:
First questions: Hecht's was always meticulous writing \vec k \cdot \vec x for plane waves, now he dropped the vector notation? I don't understand why. Ok k and r are parallels in this case so \vec k \cdot \vec r =kr, but he never justified it, I find it very strange. I'm likely missing something. Any help to understand here will be very welcome.

(it would be k.x = kr, not k.r = kr :wink:)

because it would be complicated and confusing …

the point P is at x, say, but r1 and r2 are measured from two different points, x1 and x2 say …

so the exponent would have a k.(x - x1) and k.(x - x2) …

it would look really unhelpful :redface:
Then he went to say "The terms r_1 and r_2 are the radii of the spherical wavefronts overlapping at P; they specify the distances from the sources to P. In this case \delta = k(r_1-r_2)+(\varepsilon _1 - \varepsilon _2)."

I do not understand why \delta is worth what it's worth.

he's looking at a fixed point x and seeing how the two phases differ, as a function of t …

r1 and r2 are (generally) measured along different lines, so you're not going to get something simple like (r1 - r2)/n :smile:
 
tiny-tim said:
hi fluidistic! :smile:


(it would be k.x = kr, not k.r = kr :wink:)

because it would be complicated and confusing …

the point P is at x, say, but r1 and r2 are measured from two different points, x1 and x2 say …

so the exponent would have a k.(x - x1) and k.(x - x2) …

it would look really unhelpful :redface:

Thanks for your reply. Ok I understand this, though the \vec k aren't parallel I think so I'm guessing that your last equation is an approximation (that is, assuming that the screen and the point P are very far from the sources so that the k vectors can be considered as parallel).
tiny-tim said:
he's looking at a fixed point x and seeing how the two phases differ, as a function of t …

r1 and r2 are (generally) measured along different lines, so you're not going to get something simple like (r1 - r2)/n :smile:
Hmm ok but I'm not able to show it mathematically. Can you help me on that?
 
hi fluidistic! :smile:

(just got up :zzz: …)
fluidistic said:
hmm ok but I'm not able to show it mathematically. Can you help me on that?

you seem determined to use vectors :confused:

it really isn't helpful for spherically symmetric waves like this …

Hecht uses k.x for plane waves, but scalar k for spherical ones because each simplifies the maths for that case

using the scalar k (as in your first post) is completely accurate, and gives you the phase difference immediately :wink:
 
Thread 'Question about pressure of a liquid'
I am looking at pressure in liquids and I am testing my idea. The vertical tube is 100m, the contraption is filled with water. The vertical tube is very thin(maybe 1mm^2 cross section). The area of the base is ~100m^2. Will he top half be launched in the air if suddenly it cracked?- assuming its light enough. I want to test my idea that if I had a thin long ruber tube that I lifted up, then the pressure at "red lines" will be high and that the $force = pressure * area$ would be massive...
I feel it should be solvable we just need to find a perfect pattern, and there will be a general pattern since the forces acting are based on a single function, so..... you can't actually say it is unsolvable right? Cause imaging 3 bodies actually existed somwhere in this universe then nature isn't gonna wait till we predict it! And yea I have checked in many places that tiny changes cause large changes so it becomes chaos........ but still I just can't accept that it is impossible to solve...
Back
Top