mfb said:
You can track the position over time
Maybe I am seeing it wrong but it seems to me you are referring to specific measurment techniques. What if you propose a new measurement technique with an arbitrary measurement precision, is there theoretically something that dictates the measurement duration?
By the way, if your measurement of an observable takes a long time, what have you exactly measured, the observable at the end of your experiment or the observable at the beginning of your experiment or something else?
mfb said:
You can measure energy - that will take time (there is an effective uncertainty relation between energy and time as well)
I never quite understood the uncertainty in time well enough. Could you give an example just like the example of bhobba dividing a number of equally prepared systems? What are you are you then measuring in one of the lots. Because time is not a property of the system, right?
mfb said:
In general, to not disturb the momentum, the interaction you use should be very low-energetic, but that means long wavelengths and timescales for the measurement.
Why is it important not to disturb it? It doesn't really matter if you don't know the momentum now, all that matters is that you know the momentum at a certain time (potentially in the past) then my question still stands.
bhobba said:
The exact statement is suppose you have a large number of similarly prepared systems. Divide it into two lots. In the first lot you measure position. You can get an answer you want for each measurement as accurately you like. Then in the second lot you measure momentum, and again you get an answer as accurately as you like. But when you compare the standard deviations of the results (ie their statistical spread) they are as per the Heisenberg uncertainty relations.
Could you also give a similar example for the energy-time relationship?
I guess my question is what happens if you would want to measure first the momentum and then the position of the same lot? I understand that the standard deviation of the position of this lot is not the same as of the other lot, because obviously the measurement of momentum has effected the systems, but can you say anything about the standard deviation of the position of this lot in relation with the standard deviation of the momenta of this lot?
On another note, what if the number of identically prepared systems are prior to any measurement known to be in a finite volume V and I measure the momentum of one lot precisely. What I understand from your explanation is that the other lot should now be spread over the entire space. But if my measurement of the momenta has been done in a finite time this would violate the principles of relativity.
bhobba said:
This means the answer to the original question is easy - if you know the momentum exactly later measurements of position will be completely unknown.
If you theoretically can measure the momentum in a finite time, I still see a problem regarding the principles of relativity.