Understanding 1/cos(x) with x=pi/4: Simplifying to Root 2

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the simplification of the expression 1/cos(x) when x equals pi/4. The correct evaluation shows that 1/cos(pi/4) simplifies to 1/(√2/2), which equals √2. The confusion arises from the misinterpretation of the fraction, where 2/√2 is indeed equivalent to √2, clarifying the initial misunderstanding.

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intenzxboi
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k guys if you have 1/cos (x)
and x= pi/4

then the answer is root 2

but I'm actually having trouble writing it out

so...

1/ cos (pi/4) = 1/(root2 / 2)

so how come answer isn't 2/root2?
 
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2/sqrt(2)=sqrt(2). Can you see why?
 
yea.. i see it.. brain fart been studying all day :(
 

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