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Main Question or Discussion Point
In mutual inductance, energy transfer takes place from one circuit to another through magnetic flux. But while trying to understand the equations involved from the attached image, I am getting confused.
If the current in the first coil gives rise to a flux [itex]\phi[/itex]_{1} and only a part of it ([itex]\phi[/itex]_{12}) links with the second coil, is the remaining flux ([itex]\phi[/itex]_{11}) only responsible for the back emf produced in the first coil? Or is the back emf produced by the main flux [itex]\phi[/itex]_{1} as a whole?
Another doubt I have: When there are two magnetically linked coils (like in a transformer), when a time varying current is passing through the first coil, it creates a time varying flux which induces an emf in the second coil. But in this case, is there no self induction taking place in the first coil? I mean this is not considered in the attached image. So i am not pretty convinced about this concept.
If the current in the first coil gives rise to a flux [itex]\phi[/itex]_{1} and only a part of it ([itex]\phi[/itex]_{12}) links with the second coil, is the remaining flux ([itex]\phi[/itex]_{11}) only responsible for the back emf produced in the first coil? Or is the back emf produced by the main flux [itex]\phi[/itex]_{1} as a whole?
Another doubt I have: When there are two magnetically linked coils (like in a transformer), when a time varying current is passing through the first coil, it creates a time varying flux which induces an emf in the second coil. But in this case, is there no self induction taking place in the first coil? I mean this is not considered in the attached image. So i am not pretty convinced about this concept.
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