Caspian
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My book made the following claim... but I don't understand why it's true:
If v_1, v_2, v_3, v_4 is a basis for the vector space \mathbb{R}^4, and if W is a subspace, then there exists a W which has a basis which is not some subset of the v's.
The book provided a proof by counterexample: Let v_1 = (1, 0, 0, 0) ... v_2 = (0, 0, 0, 1). If W is the line through (1, 2, 3, 4), then none of the v's are in W.
Is it just me, or does this not make any sense? First of all, (1,2,3,4) is a linear combination of (1,0,0,0)...(0,0,0,1), isn't it?
I'm very confused...
Any help would be greatly appreciated :).
If v_1, v_2, v_3, v_4 is a basis for the vector space \mathbb{R}^4, and if W is a subspace, then there exists a W which has a basis which is not some subset of the v's.
The book provided a proof by counterexample: Let v_1 = (1, 0, 0, 0) ... v_2 = (0, 0, 0, 1). If W is the line through (1, 2, 3, 4), then none of the v's are in W.
Is it just me, or does this not make any sense? First of all, (1,2,3,4) is a linear combination of (1,0,0,0)...(0,0,0,1), isn't it?
I'm very confused...
Any help would be greatly appreciated :).